From: Virgil on
In article <1152791376.515947.207400(a)h48g2000cwc.googlegroups.com>,
mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:

> Virgil schrieb:
>
> > In article <1152718980.956031.285220(a)75g2000cwc.googlegroups.com>,
> > mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
> >
> > > Franziska Neugebauer schrieb:
> > >
> > > >
> > > > You are using "to index" simultaneously for two different meanings. The
> > > > first is "to index a specific position" the second is undefined. What
> > > > does "0.1111 is indexed by the list number 4 = 0.1111" exaclty mean?
> > >
> > > The unary number n indexes every position 1,2,3,...,n.
> >
> > Actually a unary numeral, or any other numeral for a natural number, can
> > only index one position. The MEMBERS of a natural, however expressed,
> > can index up to that natural. The members of N can index all natural
> > positions.
>
> Why then is 0.111... not in the sequence 0.1, 0.11, 0.111, ...?

Because ordinals are not members of themselves.

> 0.111... cannot be indexed by the members of any natural. Does 0.111...
> have more 1's than can be indexed by any natural? Or what prevents it
> from being indexed by any of the naturals?

What cannot be indexed by any member of N is N itself, but N itself can
be "indexed" by the members of Succ(N) = N \union {N}.

Each ordinal has a successor, even limit ordinals like N, and any
ordinal can be indexed by the members of its successor.
From: Dik T. Winter on
In article <1152786578.943557.52630(a)s13g2000cwa.googlegroups.com> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
> Dik T. Winter schrieb:
....
> Cantor himself generalized his proof (in the same paper) to all
> well-defined sets like the real numbers (= Linearcontinuum) and
> functions which only can take the values 0 and 1.

Yes, that is easily transformed into a proof that the set of subsets of
the reals has grater cardinality than the reals themselves.

> (Therefore I said one
> could safely interpret his list as a list of binary numbers. Zermelo
> only remarked the problem with double representation of binary
> fractions.)

Zermelo *transformed* his first proof to a proof with binary numbers.
In Cantor's proof you can *not* safely interpret his list as a list
of binary numbers, because in his list there are no two elements that
are equal, while if you interprete them as binary numbers, there are.

> Cantor concluded: dassF die Maechtigkeit wohldefinierter
> Mannigfaltigkeiten kein Maximum haben oder, was dasselbe ist, dass
> jeder gegebenen Mannigfaltigkeit L eine andere M an die Seite gestellt
> werden kann, welche von staerkerer Maechtigkeit ist als L. For
> non-German-readers: He recognized that cardinalities do not have a
> maximum.

Indeed. That was the second part of the proof which can easily be
transformed from a proof that the powerset of the reals has greater
cardinality than the reals themselves to the proof that for any set
S, |P(S)| > |S|.
--
dik t. winter, cwi, kruislaan 413, 1098 sj amsterdam, nederland, +31205924131
home: bovenover 215, 1025 jn amsterdam, nederland; http://www.cwi.nl/~dik/
From: Dik T. Winter on
In article <1152787358.727132.194480(a)h48g2000cwc.googlegroups.com> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
> Dik T. Winter schrieb:
....
> > I translate (not needed for Franziska, but needed for others):
> > When in a well-ordered set any two elements m and m' change place in
> > the common order, the order-type will not change, so also the ordinal
> > number will not change. From that it follows that those transformatio=
> ns
> > of a well-ordered set leave the ordinal number unchanged, that can be
> > written as a finite or infinite sequence of transpositions of two
> > elements, that is, all such changes that emerge through permutations
> > of elements.
> >
> > I see a problem here:
> >
> > It is not clear what the meaning is of the words "transformations"
> > ("Umformungen") and "permutations" ("Permutation"). I think, it is clear
> > that it does not include *any* re-ordering, although many of them can be
> > written as an infinite sequence of transpositions, while some those *do*
> > change the ordinal number.
>
> These words are uninteresting. Transpositions or exchanges of two
> elements are clearly defined. Infinitely many are admitted by Cantor.

This is wrong. Not any sequence of transpositions is permitted. What *is*
permitted is *transformations that can be written as a sequence of
transpositions*. Because if you admit *any* sequence of transpositions
you may destroy the order-type.

> > The reordering of the naturals (0, 1, 2, ...) to (1, 2, 3, ..., 0) can
> > be written as an infinite sequence of transpositions, but it changes the
> > ordinal number. But is it a permutation?
>
> Unimportant for Cantor's statement.

It *is* important. Because if that falls under Cantor's definition of
"transformation" and "permutation", Cantor's statement is trivially false.

> There is no transposition which
> could change the ordinal number. Only the infinite process does what
> cannot be done by any finite set of transpositions. This shows that
> infinite processes and infinity is doubtful. My example with |Q shows
> that infinity is impossible.

Eh? You assume that Cantor's conclusion is true for your sequence of
transpositions. I state that Cantor's conclusion is false for your
sequence of statements.

> > On the other hand, there are many infinite sequences of transpositions
> > that do not change the ordinal number. Consider a well-ordered set of
> > type w * w. Interchange the first two elements of each maximal subset of
> > order type w.
> >
> > Anyhow, either WM's interpretation is wrong, and so his conclusion is
> > wrong, or WM's interpretation is right and Cantor's statement is wrong,
> > and so (again) WM's conclusion is wrong.
> >
> > I think the interpretation by WM is wrong.
>
> I know your interpretation is wrong.

What part of my interpretation is wrong?

> But that does not at all affect my proof, because, as Virgil,
> emphasized frequently, there is no transposition which changes the
> well-order to normal order while maintaining the initial enumeration (=
> well-order). Would infinitely many transpositions be possible, this
> would necessarily happen.

No. There would still not be a single transposition at which well-order
changes to non well-order. As in lim{n -> oo} 1/n, there is not a
single natural at which 1/n becomes 0.
--
dik t. winter, cwi, kruislaan 413, 1098 sj amsterdam, nederland, +31205924131
home: bovenover 215, 1025 jn amsterdam, nederland; http://www.cwi.nl/~dik/
From: Dik T. Winter on
In article <1152787731.201543.289190(a)35g2000cwc.googlegroups.com> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
> Dik T. Winter schrieb:
....
> > Pray tell me how. Somewhere else you stated that the representation
> > 0.111... did not exist. What are you arguing? Either the representation
> > 0.111... does exist or not. And if it does exist the definitions of the
> > mathematical operations are not sufficient to give a meaning to it.
> >
> > Anyhow, how do you show that 1.000... - 0.999... = 0 with the definitions
> > you are using?
>
> In "usual" mathematics we have 10 * 0.999... = 9.999... and from that
> we get easily 0.999... = 1.

What "usual" mathematics are you using?

> I argue that 0.111... does not exist. When I will have succeded, also
> 0.999... will be abolished. But that has not yet been generally
> accepted. OK?

I argue that 0.111... does exist as it is defined as sum{n = 1, oo} 10^(-n).
--
dik t. winter, cwi, kruislaan 413, 1098 sj amsterdam, nederland, +31205924131
home: bovenover 215, 1025 jn amsterdam, nederland; http://www.cwi.nl/~dik/
From: Dik T. Winter on
In article <1152788625.612288.116290(a)i42g2000cwa.googlegroups.com> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
> Dik T. Winter schrieb:
>
> > > The axiom says "there is an infinite set". It does not say that
> > > 0.111... does belong to that set, in particular because all numbers
> > > which in fact do belong to the set are different from 0.111... .
> >
> > You are using the word set with two different meanings in the same sentence.
>
> The set of naturals shold be the same set as the set of indices of
> 0.111... . But it cannot.

But it is.

> > *And* you do not answer my primary comment. There is a specific definition
> > for a notation like 0.111... Without such a definition it is just a string
> > of eight symbols.
>
> There is a specific definition that the set of all naturals has a
> cardinal number larger than any element of the set.

I would think there is a proof of such.

> This definiion is
> wrong. I show this by the fact that 0.111... is not in the set of unary
> reprsetations of all natural numbers. aleph_0, the number of 1's in
> 0.111... is *not* the cardinal number of |N.

Proof, please.

But you still refrain from answering my primary comment.

> > Again, not an answer to a specific question. I wrote:
> > > For all p there is an n such that An[p] = K[p];
> > and you wrote that is wrong. What is wrong about that statement?
>
> Te assumption that all digits of 0.111... can be inexed by natural
> numbers while 0.111... has the property to to be outside of the list.

Still waiting for a proof.

> > > But as K is not in the list
> > > of natural numbers, it must differ from the numbers in the list. And
> > > this difference cannot be accomplished other than by K having more
> > > digits than any number in the list. Again, this is impossible. Hence we
> > > have a contradiction.
> >
> > Pray *prove* why that is impossible. You always only state it but provide
> > not prove. Each An has finitely many digits. K has infinitely many digits.
> > If you disagree with the second you disagree with the axiom of infinity,
> > but that is philosophical.
>
> K cannot have infinitely many digits if all can be indexed by finite
> numbers. Infinite is larger than any finite number. Therefore every
> list number taken will not be capably of indexing K.
> 0.111... - 0.111...1 = 0.000...0111...

You mean covering here. And you are right, K is not in the list. I have
never argued that it is. Still, what is the problem?

> > > > The last is true. But it is also true that for all p there is an An.
> > > > Or please exhibit a p for which it is not wrong.
> > >
> > > This equation
> > > 0.111... - 0.111...1 = 0.000...0111...
> > > says that for any An = 0.111...1 there is a p = n+1 which cannot be
> > > indexed.
> >
> > This makes absolutely no ense to me. And again is no answer to the
> > question I posed.
>
> Whatever p you choose, there is always a place in 0.111... which cannot
> be indexed. Therefore there is a place which cannot be indexed in
> principle.

What do you mean with "cannot be indexed"?

> > Again you fail to answer a question, Your implication was:
> > > > > If you think the sentence "all positions of K = 0.111...are indexed by
> > > > > list numbers" is not equivalent to the sentence "K
> > > > > is in the list", then you seem to imply that more than one list number
> > > > > is required to index the digits of K.
> > Care to explain it?
>
> You know that one list number is not capable of indexing 0.111... , bu
> you assume that 0.111... can be indexed completely.

You use the word "indexed" in a strange way. You mean "covered". I never
assume that 0.111... can be "covered" by some An. Nevertheless, *each
digit position can be indexed by some An".

> > Well, to index can be stated as to cover. But not the other way around.
>
> Therefore never more than one number is required for indexing purposes.

Covering? Well, in the finite. What holds in the finite does not
necessarily hold in the infinite.

> > > > > 0.111... *- (0.1 + 0.11 + 0.111 + ...) = 0.000...
> > > >
> > > > I can make no sense of the second term. What do you *mean* with
> > > > (0.1 + 0.11 + 0.111 + ...)
> > >
> > > The sum of all list numbers by digit, as shown in the following
> > > example:
> > >
> > > 0.1
> > > +0.11
> > > +0.111
> > > _____
> > > =0.321
> >
> > Ok. What about "+ ..."?
>
> Definition: 1+1+1+... := 1

That makes absolutely no sense.
--
dik t. winter, cwi, kruislaan 413, 1098 sj amsterdam, nederland, +31205924131
home: bovenover 215, 1025 jn amsterdam, nederland; http://www.cwi.nl/~dik/