From: Virgil on
In article <1150710209.401911.130270(a)i40g2000cwc.googlegroups.com>,
mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:

> Virgil schrieb:
>

> > Note that M depends on the particular f that has been chosen.
> > We can indicate that dependence by writing M_f.
>
> Oh, indeed? What is the number k mapped under f on the set K = {k e |N
> : k /e f(k)} of this M_f ?

As soon as you tell us that M_f exists at all, YOU are telling us that
there must be such a set, K. The only other option is that there is no
such set K and no such set M_f and no such function f at all, in which
case the uncountable-countable-set becomes a non-existent
uncountable-countable-set.
From: Virgil on
In article <1150718841.726873.223390(a)g10g2000cwb.googlegroups.com>,
mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:

> Dik T. Winter schrieb:
>
> > In article <1150654604.323294.139860(a)f6g2000cwb.googlegroups.com>
> > mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
> > > An uncountable countable set
> > >
> > > There is no bijective mapping f : |N --> M,
> > > where M contains the set of all finite subsets of |N
> > > and, in addition, the set K = {k e |N : k /e f(k)} of all natural
> > > numbers k which are mapped on subsets not containing k.
> >
> > But is the set K in M? Pray give a proof.
>
> Of course it is, by definition, for without K M would not be M.
>
> Regards, WM

Give us an example of such an f, K_f and M_f, to show that such an f,
K_f anf M_f can actually exist.

If they can exist at all, it is easy enough to show that there is a
bijection beween |N and M_f, and if they can't then there is no M_f to
worry about.
From: Virgil on
In article <1150728187.749465.36710(a)g10g2000cwb.googlegroups.com>,
mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:

> Dik T. Winter schrieb:
>
> > In article <1150718841.726873.223390(a)g10g2000cwb.googlegroups.com>
> > mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
> > >
> > > Dik T. Winter schrieb:
> > >
> > > > In article <1150654604.323294.139860(a)f6g2000cwb.googlegroups.com>
> > > > mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
> > > > > An uncountable countable set
> > > > >
> > > > > There is no bijective mapping f : |N --> M,
> > > > > where M contains the set of all finite subsets of |N
> > > > > and, in addition, the set K = {k e |N : k /e f(k)} of all natural
> > > > > numbers k which are mapped on subsets not containing k.
> > > >
> > > > But is the set K in M? Pray give a proof.
> > >
> > > Of course it is, by definition, for without K M would not be M.
> >
> > Ah, I see. The set M is defined depending on f. Well in that case f
> > is clearly not a bijection between N and M.
>
> That is correct.
>
> > This does not tell us that
> > there is *no* bijection (say g) between N and M.
>
> M depends on f. And when you take g, then M depends on g. That is the
> essence of M.

Wrong! Given any two large sets are many functions for one to the other
and equality of cardinality depends on whether any one of them is a
bijection. Given two sets to compare, you cannot restrict things to only
one allowable function between them but must allow all possible
functions between them to be considered.
>
> > In order to show that
> > there is no bijection between N and M you are not allowed to change M
> > for each and every attempted mapping.
>
> I do not change anything. I define K by exactly that mapping which is
> assumed.

Then there are other functions between N and M_f, one of which is a
bijection.
>
> > Suppose f is a bijection between
> > N and S, where S is the set of finite subsets of N (such a bijection
> > does exist). Construct K(f) and next M(f). Clearly f is not a bijection
> > between N and M(f). However it is possible to construct a bijection
> > between N and M(f):
> > 1. g(0) = K(f)
> > 2. g(n) = f(n - 1) when n > 0.
> > So also M(f) is countable.
>
> That is not at all the way a bijection has to be constructed between |N
> and M. That is simply impossible!

That you do not like it does not at all mean that it is impossible.

There are two issues here. The first is whether a function of the sort
Meucken tries to create can exist at all. He has given no example of
such a function, nor proof of existence.

However if we allow the assumption that such a function f exists, it is
not hard to show that there are bijections between |N and M_f, though f
need not be one of them.
From: Virgil on
In article <1150728692.949790.258040(a)h76g2000cwa.googlegroups.com>,
mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:

> Daryl McCullough schrieb:
>
> > mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de says...
> >
> > >> > There is no bijective mapping f : |N --> M,
> > >> > where M contains the set of all finite subsets of |N
> > >> > and, in addition, the set K = {k e |N : k /e f(k)} of all natural
> > >> > numbers k which are mapped on subsets not containing k.
> >
> > It's not exactly clear what you are talking about here. Do
> > you mean that M is the set of all finite subsets of N?
>
> Above I spelled out clearly that M contains the set of all finite
> subsets of |N and one more set K. What is unclear?
>
> > In
> > that case, there is definitely a bijection between M and N:
>
> If M was the set of all finite subsets of N, that would be easy enough
> to see.
>
> > If you let K = { k in N such that k is not an element of f(k) }
> > then we can see that
> >
> > K = N
>
> Such a mapping is possible with no doubt. There remains only one
> question: what number is mapped on K?

That raises the question of whether such a set as M_f can exist at all.

If it cannot exist, then the issue of whether a non-existent set is
countable is irrelevant.

So that Meucken's first duty is to prove that a function having the sort
of codomain, M_f, he describes can exist at all.

If ever that is established, the construction of a bijection between it
and N is fairly trivial.
From: Tim Peters on
[mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de]
>>> An uncountable countable set
>>>
>>> There is no bijective mapping f : |N --> M,
>>> where M contains the set of all finite subsets of |N
>>> and, in addition, the set K = {k e |N : k /e f(k)} of all natural
>>> numbers k which are mapped on subsets not containing k.

[Dik T. Winter]
>> Ah, I see. The set M is defined depending on f. Well in that case f
>> is clearly not a bijection between N and M.

I'm not sure I'd be so generous here. K isn't a definite set before f is
specified (meaning that for K to provably exist by the axiom of separation,
f has to provably exist first), but to specify f K has to be a definite set
first (since K must be the image under f of some natural k, f can't be
proven to exist unless K can be proven to exist first).

IOW, I doubt this argument can be made in ZFC, just as it's not possible
under ZFC to prove that

F = {k e |N : k e F}
or
G = {k e |N : k /e G}

exist.

[mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de]
> That is correct.

>> This does not tell us that there is *no* bijection (say g) between
>> N and M.

> M depends on f. And when you take g, then M depends on g. That is the
> essence of M.

And if Dik constructs g1, while I construct a distinct g2, the definition of
M frustrates both claimed bijections simultaneously? Cool ;-)

> ...


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