From: RSimmons on
Let a(n) be a real sequence. If sum_k=1..n [a(k)]^2 = O( 1/(n^p . log^q n)), n -> +infinity (p,q >= 0) then
a(n) = O( 1/n^(p+1)/2 . log^q/2 n), n -> +infinity?
From: Robert Israel on

> Let a(n) be a real sequence. If sum_k=1..n [a(k)]^2 = O( 1/(n^p . log^q
> n)), n -> +infinity (p,q >= 0) then
> a(n) = O( 1/n^(p+1)/2 . log^q/2 n), n -> +infinity?

Are you sure this is what you meant to ask?
sum_{k=1}^n a(k)^2 is nonnegative and nondecreasing, so it can't be
O(1/(n^p log(n)^q) except in the case p=q=0 with the sum converging.
And even then you can't make any conclusion a(n) = O(f(n)) with f(n) -> 0
because you could e.g. take a(n_k) = 2^(-k), a(n) = 0 otherwise, with
n_k a sequence increasing fast enough that f(n_k) < 3^(-k).
--
Robert Israel israel(a)math.MyUniversitysInitials.ca
Department of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel
University of British Columbia Vancouver, BC, Canada