From: David Marcus on
Andy Smith wrote:
> David Marcus writes
> > Andy Smith wrote:

> >> So, for example we can think of some
> >> representative points located in x
>
> Perhaps I should have said in {x} 0<=x<=1 then.

In {x| 0 <= x <= 1}.

> My mental problem with the limit of x^n was that viewed as mapping of
> points I couldn't see how you could split [0,1] into [0,1) and 1 by any
> sort of limit process - I had a mental image of x^n as a y-axis and x as
> the x-axis. At n = 1 it is a line, then progressively curving close to
> the x-axis as n increases, but always continuous. Viewed from the
> y-axis, there always seemed to be an inverse mapping.

You are picturing uniform convergence. In fact, Spivak has that
identical picture as Figure 6 in Chapter 24. In some sense, uniform
convergence is more natural when dealing with functions.

--
David Marcus
From: David Marcus on
David Bernier wrote:
> David Marcus wrote:
> > Andy Smith wrote:

> >> If x is irrational cos(m! pi x) does not have a limit as m->oo, it is
> >> undefined?
> >
> > Correct. It does not have a limit. So, if x is irrational, then
> >
> > lim_{m->oo) cos(m! pi x)
> >
> > is undefined.
>
> For x = 2exp(1) = 2e, cos(m! pi*(2e)) is close to 1 for several
> m>1000. 2e = 2/1 + 2/1 + 2/2! + 2/3! + 2/4! + ... 2/(k!) + ...
>
> Say m is large. Then (m!)*2/((m-1)!) = 2m is even, and for the
> k<= m, (m!)*2/k! is even. But for k = m+1, (m!)*2/(k!) = 2/(m+1),
> which gets closer to 0 as m increases. I'm not convinced
> that lim_{m->oo} cos(m! pi * (2e)) is undefined.

I confess I didn't have a proof in mind when I wrote that the limit is
undefined. I withdraw my statement.

--
David Marcus
From: mueckenh on

Andy Smith schrieb:

> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes
> >
> >Andy Smith schrieb:
> >
> >> I
> >> > > > > The union of all finite binary trees contains all levels
> >> > > > >which can be
> >> > > > > enumerated by natural numbers:
> >> > > > >
> >> > > > > 0 0.
> >> > > > > / \
> >> > > > > 1 0 1
> >> > > > > / \ / \
> >> > > > > 2 0 1 0 1
> >> > > > > ...............................
> >> > > > >
> >>
> >> Out of interest, aren't the set of all numbers defined by the union of
> >> all paths through a finite binary tree with N levels just all the
> >> numbers addressed by the first N bits? If so, why do you bother with
> >> the tree construction - does it have some special significance?
> >
> >The real numbers are represented as infinite paths in the "complete"
> >infinite tree. Some even twice.
> >
> >The union of all finite trees is an infinite tree.
> >Every finite tree contains only a finite set of paths.
> >The countable union of all paths of the finite trees is therefore the
> >countable union of all finite paths.
> >The countable union of all finite paths is in the union of all finite
> >trees.
> >The "complete" tree containing all paths is identical to the union of
> >al finite trees, with respect to nodes and edges.
> >Identical trees cannot contain different sets of paths.
> >Therefore, both trees contain the same set of paths.
> >Therefore the "complete" set of all path is countable.
> >Therefore the set of all real numbers is countable.
> >Therefore ZFC is inconsistent.
>
> I would have said that the set of all paths in a finite tree of depth N
> correspond 1:1 with the address range of N bits.

You use N as a natural number? It is usual here to denote the set of
all natural numbers by N, a natual number by n.
>
> An infinite tree corresponds to a number encoded in a countably infinite
> set of bits.

The nodes of the tree, yes. The edges of the tree too. The paths of the
tree, no.

The tree illustrates the following problem:
1) For every natural number n there is an natural number m such that m
= n+1.
In short, with n,m in N: An Em: m = n+1
2) The set N of all n exists actually, i.e., it is impossible to change
N by adding any further natural number n.

This is equivalent with the statement about finite initial segments.
1) An Em: |{1,2,3,...,m}| = |{1,2,3,...,n}| +1.
2) The set N of all {1,2,3,...,n} exists actually, i.e., it is
impossible to change N by adding any further finite initial segment
{1,2,3,...,n}.

>
> Cantor's diagonalisation argument then applies.

It does not apply to the paths of the tree with all nodes, because this
tree contains the representations of all real numbers of the interval
[0, 1].

> But, I think that there
> are other reasons for thinking that the reals are uncountable anyway.

Which reasons have you in mind?
>
> But I am not qualified to comment anyway.

You are qualified, according to Cantor. Understand some German? Cantor
said: "Zum Verständnis der Lehre vom Transfiniten bedarf es keiner
gelehrten Vorbereitung in der neueren Mathematik; sie kann für diesen
Zweck eher schädlich als nützlich sein." Today, that is more true
than ever.

Regards, WM

From: mueckenh on

Franziska Neugebauer schrieb:


> Whether a _meaning_ of
>
> T(1) U T(2) U T(3) U ... (inf-u)
>
> exists does _not_ depend on such question. It depends on a definition
> you have to provide. So please answer the question, what (inf-u) means
> and prove that it exists.
>
> > This is connected
>
> Whether that is "connected" is irrelevant to a possible definition of
> (inf-u).

That is not a true statement. Nevertheless:

Definition of the infinite union of trees by induction: If the finite
tree with n levels exists, the finite tree with n+1 levels exist. The
tree with 1 level exists.

Proof of existence of the union tree by proofs of A, B, and C:
A) Proof of the existence of one infinite path by induction over the
indexes
{1} U {1, 2} U {1, 2, 3} U... U {1, 2, 3, ..., n}... U ...
is the same as the union of the ends of the initial segments
{1} U { 2} U {3} U... U {n}... U ..
which is N which exists.
B) Proof of the existence of all infinite paths: See proof of the
existence of all real numbers in [0, 1].
C) Proof of the existence of all paths in the tree being infinite:: All
paths of a tree have same length by definition.

Regards, WM

From: David Marcus on
mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
> The tree illustrates the following problem:
> 1) For every natural number n there is an natural number m such that m
> = n+1.
> In short, with n,m in N: An Em: m = n+1
> 2) The set N of all n exists actually, i.e., it is impossible to change
> N by adding any further natural number n.
>
> This is equivalent with the statement about finite initial segments.
> 1) An Em: |{1,2,3,...,m}| = |{1,2,3,...,n}| +1.
> 2) The set N of all {1,2,3,...,n} exists actually, i.e., it is
> impossible to change N by adding any further finite initial segment
> {1,2,3,...,n}.

So, what's the problem (besides your loose wording)?

--
David Marcus