From: Gregor H. on
On 1 Feb 2007 03:49:09 -0800, mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:

>
> Here is the definition of the set N
>
> 1
> 2
> 3
> ...
>
> Here is the definition of the sum of all elements of N
>
> 1
> 23
> 456
> ...
>

Hahahahaha...

--

E-mail: info<at>simple-line<Punkt>de
From: Gregor H. on
On 1 Feb 2007 04:17:25 -0800, mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:

>>
>> A listing of all natural numbers is not the same as the summing of all
>> natural numbers, and WM has, at most, produced a listing.
>>
> The sum is a listing: II + III = IIIII = 1,2,3,4,5.
>
> The sum of all natural numbers can be obtained (if all natural nunbers
> exist) by the following "diaogonalization"
>
> 1
> 23
> 654
> ...
> It is countable.
>

Hahahahahaha... :-)))


--

E-mail: info<at>simple-line<Punkt>de
From: Dik T. Winter on
In article <1170337444.507110.282460(a)k78g2000cwa.googlegroups.com> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
> On 1 Feb., 13:48, "Dik T. Winter" <Dik.Win...(a)cwi.nl> wrote:
> > In article <1170327430.425220.185...(a)a34g2000cwb.googlegroups.com> mueck...(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
> >
> > > On 31 Jan., 03:17, "Dik T. Winter" <Dik.Win...(a)cwi.nl> wrote:
> > >
> > > > > The union of trees implies the union of outmost
> > > > > left-hand side paths for example. This union is a path.
> > > >
> > > > Indeed, but it is *not* in the union of the sets of paths of finite trees.
> > > > In the above example, that set does contain *all* the paths {0}, {0, 1},
> > > > {0, 1, 2}, {0, 1, 2, 3}, etc., but *not* the path {0, 1, 2, 3, ...},
> > > > because the last path is in *none* of the constituent sets.
> > >
> > > This is the same with the infinite tree. Why do you accept the
> > > existence of the infinite tree?
> >
> > Why is it the same? The infinite tree *does* contain the path
> > {0, 1, 2, 3, ...}. But that path is *not* in the union of the sets
> > of finite paths.
>
> And that path is ot contained in the union of sets of finite trees.

Indeed. But it is in the union of finite trees. There is a difference.

> > > The union of all finite paths of type p(r) establishes the infinite
> > > path r.
> > > The union of all finite paths of all finite trees establishes all
> > > infinite paths.
> >
> > Yes. I do not contradict *that*. The "set of the union of paths" is
> > *not* the "union of the sets of paths".
>
> No, it is only a subset.

That is false because the "set of union of paths" does contain infinite
paths while the "union of the sets of paths" does *not* contain infinite
paths.
--
dik t. winter, cwi, kruislaan 413, 1098 sj amsterdam, nederland, +31205924131
home: bovenover 215, 1025 jn amsterdam, nederland; http://www.cwi.nl/~dik/
From: Dik T. Winter on
In article <1170337797.588981.135470(a)q2g2000cwa.googlegroups.com> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
> On 1 Feb., 14:09, "Dik T. Winter" <Dik.Win...(a)cwi.nl> wrote:
> > In article <1170328870.612961.224...(a)v33g2000cwv.googlegroups.com> mueck...(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
....
> > > > Well, it is certainly not finite, so it must be infinite (translation:
> > > > "not finite").
> > >
> > > Not finite is correct. But you translate it as actually existing set,
> > > i.e., finished infinity. That is incorrect.
> >
> > Not finite is identical to infinite. But the axiom of infinity states that
> > it exists.
>
> Not finite is identical to infinite. The axiom of infinity, however,
> finishes infinity.

Eh?

> > > Because there is nothing else in the union but natural numbers.
> > > You cannot get an apple if you collect nuts.
> >
> > The union of all finite natural numbers is not a natural number. Why
> > do you think it is?
>
> The union of paths is a path. The projection of a finite number on a
> pathlength remains a finite number. The projection of all finite
> numbers on a pathlength remains a finite number.

Yes, so what?

> > > Nevertheless, if you assume that the length of the union of all paths
> > > (not the cardinal number !) is infinite, then you advocate infinite
> > > number sizes are required for an infinite union of numbers.
> >
> > That is quite confusing as stated.
>
> It is only unfamiliar to think about that.
>
> > But indeed, the infinite union of
> > all natural numbers (considered as sets) is not a natural number.
>
> Maybe. But the natural numbers consideed as paths remain natural
> numbers in any case.

When you do so, yes. On the other hand their union is not a natural number
but can also be considered a path.

> > > On the other hand many people assert that there is an infinite union
> > > of finite pathlengths without containing or establishing an infinite
> > > pathlength.
> >
> > Eh? Who?
>
> Everybody who says that there is "an infinite set of finite
> pathlengths".

What is the difference between that and asserting that there is an
infinite set of finite numbers? But in that statement I do not see
a "union" expressed.
--
dik t. winter, cwi, kruislaan 413, 1098 sj amsterdam, nederland, +31205924131
home: bovenover 215, 1025 jn amsterdam, nederland; http://www.cwi.nl/~dik/
From: mueckenh on
On 1 Feb., 14:15, "Dik T. Winter" <Dik.Win...(a)cwi.nl> wrote:
> In article <1170330236.064219.62...(a)a75g2000cwd.googlegroups.com> mueck....(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
>

>  > If you have a set and you add something to this set (in unary
>  > representation), then you have a super set of the former. The former
>  > is a subset of the latter.
>
> This is not defining what I asked for.  What are the elements of the sets
> you are talking about?

The type of element is not restricted other than by the requirement
that it be part of the real world.
>
>  > >  > > Bizarre.  So 3 is the set of all existing (what does that mean) sets
>  > >  > > with 3 elements,
>  > >  >
>  > >  > The number 3 is the set of all sets of 3 elements (unless they were
>  > >  > existing, they would not have 3 elements). But 3 is also here III. It
>  > >  > is every set of 3 elements.
>  > >
>  > > You failed to respond to what followed.  If you *now* define it as every
>  > > set of 3 elements, that is a circular definition.  "3 is any set of 3
>  > > elements" looks quite circular to me.
>  >
>  > It is circular. But please do not forget that I do not *define* a
>  > natural number! I leave that to Peano etc. I look for its *existence*.
>
> So it was not a definition at all.  Note also that the Peano axioms to
> *not* talk about representation.

Therefore we have to investigate whether such a representation exists.
Note that I use the definition of a number by Peano in order to look
for the existence of that number.
>
>  > >  > > I do not ask what possible answers there are, I only ask how you would
>  > >  > > like to propose it.  And, pray extend to 111111111.
>  > >  >
>  > >  > This is a set of 9 distinguishable elements, it is a set representing
>  > >  > the number 9. And: It is the nunmber 9. Every set of 9 elements and
>  > >  > avery set of sets of 9 elements is the number 9.
>  > >
>  > > So you are now going to equivalence classes of sets with the same number
>  > > of elements?  Or what?  As you write it your definition is still circular.
>  >
>  > Of course it is. You must start at some point and eventually you will
>  > come back. Circular reasoning cannot be avoided. But that is not a
>  > problem when existence is concerned. The definition of a number is
>  > given on p. 3 and p 130 of my book.
>
> A definition that uses circular reasoning is not a definition.  If a write:
>     a foo is a foo

The definition of a number is given as non-circular as possible: p. 3:

1) 1 ist eine natürliche Zahl.

2) Jede Zahl a in N hat einen bestimmten Nachfolger a' in N.

3) Es gibt keine Zahl mit dem Nachfolger 1.

4) Aus a' = b' folgt a = b.

5) Jede Menge M von natürlichen Zahlen, welche die Zahl 1 und zu jeder
Zahl a  M auch den Nachfolger a' enthält, enthält alle natürlichen
Zahlen.

p. 130:

1) 1 in M.
2) If n in M then n + 1 in M.
3) IN ist Durchschnitt aller Mengen M, die (1) und (2) erfüllen.

To investigate the *existence* of number 3 we can use the definition
of 3.

Regards, WM