From: Tony Orlow on
William Hughes wrote:
> Poker Joker wrote:
>> "Dik T. Winter" <Dik.Winter(a)cwi.nl> wrote in message
>> news:J6CsBJ.Jys(a)cwi.nl...
>>> In article <070Tg.14143$8_5.3402(a)tornado.rdc-kc.rr.com> "Poker Joker"
>>> <Poker(a)wi.rr.com> writes:
>>>> "Randy Poe" <poespam-trap(a)yahoo.com> wrote in message
>>>> news:1159494111.724651.95600(a)i3g2000cwc.googlegroups.com...
>>>>
>>>>> That's incorrect. You don't have to assume none map onto R in order to
>>>>> prove none map onto R.
>>>>>
>>>>> The direct argument starts this way: Let f be any such function, from
>>>>> naturals to reals.
>>>> Certainly we should assume that f *MIGHT* have R as its image, right?
>>> You may assume that, but that assumption is not needed.
>> Certainly not for ostriches.
>>
>>>>> Now, are you saying that somehow that misses some possible functions
>>>>> from naturals to reals? How so?
>>>> No, but we haven't proven that the image of f can't be R in step #1,
>>>> right?
>>>> So step #2 isn't valid, right?
>>> Remember:
>>>> 1. Assume there is a list containing all the reals.
>>>> 2. Show that a real can be defined/constructed from that list.
>>>> 3. Show why the real from step 2 is not on the list.
>>>> 4. Conclude that the premise is wrong because of the contradiction.
>>> Why is step 2 invalid?
>> Do you always accept steps that have questionable validity?
>>
>>>> Under the most general assumption, we can't count out that
>>>> R is f's image, so defining a real in terms of the image of
>>>> f *MIGHT* be self-referential, and it certainly is if the image
>>>> of f is R.
>>> What is the problem here?
>> I assume you accept this proof that there are no complete lists
>> of reals:
>>
>> Let r be a real number between 0 and 1. Let r_n denote the nth digit
>> in r's decimal expansion. Let r_n = 5 if r_n = 4, otherwise let r_n = 4.
>> r isn't on any list of reals. Therefore there isn't a complete list of
>> reals.
>
> Hardly, but this "proof" does not reflect what is being done.
>
> You start out with a set of real numbers A, with a certain
> property, there is a surjective function from the natural
> numbers to A. In other words A is a list of real numbers.
>
> You define a process D(A) which gives you a real number.
> D depends only on the fact that a surjective function
> from the natural numbers exists, it does not depend on
> any other property of A. Thus D can be applied to any
> list . In particular, if we assume there is a list
> containing all the real numbers, D can be applied to this
> list. That this application will lead to a contradiction
> does not change the fact that D can be applied to the
> list. So step 2 is valid.
>
> Of course, we need not make this assumption. In this case
> the proof goes
>
> 1 Let A be a list
> 2 Use D to contruct a real number r
> 3 Show that r in not an element of A
> 4 Conclude that A does not contain all the
> real numbers
>
> Again, since D can be applied to any list
> step 2 is valid.
>
> - William Hughes
>

This list must be in representation using 2 or more symbols, yes? You
cannot perform this proof in unary without the obvious result.
From: Virgil on
In article <vOjTg.25590$QT.1504(a)tornado.rdc-kc.rr.com>,
"Poker Joker" <Poker(a)wi.rr.com> wrote:

> "Alan Morgan" <amorgan(a)xenon.Stanford.EDU> wrote in message
> news:efkegr$6d9$1(a)xenon.Stanford.EDU...
>
> >>if its true for ANY list, then it must be
> >>true for a specific list. So if considering a single specific list
> >>shows a flaw, then looking at ANY (ALL of them) list doesn't
> >>help.
> >
> > But if it's true for ANY list then it must be true for a specific
> > list. So if considering a single specific list shows a flaw then
> > perhaps that list doesn't really exist.
>
> That's true, but that's not the entire story.

It is in mathematics. Once a proof for any list is established, it
covers every list.
>
> Suppose I claim that I have a list that contains all the reals.

Such claims, without supporting proofs, are to worth the electrons Joker
used to post them.

> You claim you can take that list and construct a real not
> on the list. You procede to show the construction. I would
> claim that your construction is flawed

Again, such claims, as that of having a list of all reals, are worthless
without evidence, and Joker has shown that his word is damned poor
evidence.
From: Virgil on
In article <qWjTg.25591$QT.23912(a)tornado.rdc-kc.rr.com>,
"Poker Joker" <Poker(a)wi.rr.com> wrote:

> "MoeBlee" <jazzmobe(a)hotmail.com> wrote in message
> news:1159579135.514717.296590(a)m7g2000cwm.googlegroups.com...
>
> > Look, suppose x is an arbitrary even number and I prove that therefore
> > x has property P. I then conclude that all even numbers have property
> > P.
>
> The property could be say, that x is prime

I wait with unbated breath for Joker to prove that an arbitrary even
number has to be prime.
From: Virgil on
In article <_YjTg.25592$QT.21259(a)tornado.rdc-kc.rr.com>,
"Poker Joker" <Poker(a)wi.rr.com> wrote:


> I understand everything you understand. I just understand more, and
> that confuses you.

Joker seems to have delusions of competency.
From: MoeBlee on
Tony Orlow wrote:
> > So you're saying the first digit of r is 4 because the first digit of
> > r isn't 4? What the hell are you talking about?
>
> Duh. Sounds like PJ's constructing an anti-diagonal.

No, he's not. There is no diagonal in what he's doing. What he's doing
just amounts to stipulating the existence of a sequence that does not
exist.

> >> r isn't on any list of reals. Therefore there isn't a complete list of
> >> reals.
> >
> > That bears no resemblance at all to a proof.

> It bears much resemblance to Cantor's second regarding uncountability
> of...a set. The original proof was regarding a complete language using
> at least two symbols, m and w, no? That was later conflated to a proof
> about the reals. Numbers are representations of quantity. It's related
> to powerset, via N=S^L.

Whatever that is all about, like Randy said, Poker Joker's arguments
have no bearing on the uncountability proofs.

MoeBlee


>
> Tony