From: mueckenh on

Virgil schrieb:

> In article <1161182168.538010.12650(a)f16g2000cwb.googlegroups.com>,
> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
>
>
> > N = omega = aleph 0. How should one of them have different character?
> > According to Cantor, set theory deals with actual infinity, not with
> > potential.
>
> Cantor died in 1918. Things have progressed a bit since then.

Not the knowledge about infinity. On the contrary, it has been
forgotten and has been applied carelessly and false.

Regards, WM

From: Mike Kelly on

Han de Bruijn wrote:
> Dik T. Winter wrote:
>
> > I think that, compared to Cantor, in modern set theory potential and actual
> > infinity are split up again. The contents of the set N form only a potential
> > infinity, on the other hand, the *size* is an actual infinity.
>
> And you call _that_ "thinking" ?!
>
> Han de Bruijn

Hey look, Han is resorting to insults. What a hypocrite!

--
mike.

From: William Hughes on

mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
> jpalecek(a)web.de schrieb:
>
>
>
> > > > Every list of real numbers supplies a diagonal number which
> > > > is not contained in the list.
> > > >
> > > > so any way you cut it there is no complete list of real numbers.
> > >
> > > And there is no complete list of computable numbers. But they are
> > > countable. Hence the diagonal argument does not prove anything.
> >
> > This is nonsense. You say "my proof is flawed, therefore your proof is
> > flawed". You'd better think more about your proof.
>
> In order to avoid computable lists and to have a common base think of
> constructible numbers. A constructible number is a number of which
> every digit can be obtained by a given formula. Every diagonal number
> of a given list is a constructible number.
>
> The set of constructible numbers is obviously countable.

No. There is no list of constructible numbers (your definition).
Therefore (by definition of countable) the constructible numbers
are not countable.

- William Hughes

From: Dik T. Winter on
In article <eh6oh3$qov$1(a)mailhub227.itcs.purdue.edu> Dave Seaman <dseaman(a)no.such.host> writes:
> On Thu, 19 Oct 2006 00:49:13 GMT, Dik T. Winter wrote:
> > In article <eh5et9$4gv$1(a)mailhub227.itcs.purdue.edu> Dave Seaman <dseaman(a)no.such.host> writes:
> > > On Wed, 18 Oct 2006 14:14:33 GMT, Dik T. Winter wrote:
> > > > In article <J7B4p3.ItG(a)cwi.nl> "Dik T. Winter" <Dik.Winter(a)cwi.nl> writes:
> > ...
> > > > Gesammelte Abhandlungen, Hildesheim, 1962, p. 213:
> > > > ... der Unterschied ist nur der, da?, w?hrend die Mengen erster
> > > > M?chtigkeit nur durch (mit Hilfe von) Zahlen der zweiten
> > > > Zahlenklasse abgez?hlt werden k?nnen, die Abz?hlung bei Mengen
> > > > zweiter M?chtigkeit nur durch Zahlen der dritten Zahlenklasse,
> > > > bei Mengen dritter M?chtigkeit nur durch Zahlen der vierten
> > > > Zahlenklasse u. s. w. erfolgen kann.
> > > > or translated:
> > > > ... the difference is only that, while sets of the first
> > > > cardinality can be counted only through (with the aid off)
> > > > numbers of the second class, the counting of sets of the second
> > > > cardinality only through numbers of the third class, with sets
> > > > of the third cardinality only through numbers of the fourth
> > > > class, etc.
>
> > > > From:
> > > > ?ber unendlichen lineare Punktmannigfaltigkeiten, Nr. 6, sec. 15.
>
> > > I may be wrong, but I interpret the quoted passage to mean:
>
> > It depends on the exact meaning of "abgez?hlt werden k?nnen". At least
> > in Dutch such a sentence means assigning a number to the first, assigning
> > a number to the second, etc. I would be pretty surprised if it does mean
> > something else or when Cantor means something else with it. But I will
> > look tomorrow whether I can find a clarification in his papers.

I have checked in the dictionary, and indeed, just like in Dutch there are
also in German two verbs with the meaning 'count': z?hlen and abz?hlen.
The first in general meaning obtaining the total number of objects you are
counting, while the second is more or less the *process* of counting (one
of the possible meanings is 'to count down' at the launching of a rocket).
So also when you have obtained the number of objects you are likely to use
'gez?hlt' and not 'abgez?hlt'.


> I read that to mean that the correspondence goes like this:
>
> 0 -> w
> 1 -> w+1
> 2 -> w+2

I think not. My interpretation is that if you have an (ordered) set of
cardinality aleph-0 that you can assign numbers to the elements using
the ordinals of the second class. (I may note that here Cantor assumes
that all sets can be well-ordered.)
>
> and so on, where all ordinals of the second number class appear in the
> second column.

And that is clearly not the case. It is talking about the counting of sets
with cardinality aleph-0, so sets with ordinality w, w+1, etc., and when you
*do* count them not all ordinals of the second number class will appear.

> > But this would precisely explain the problems Wolfgang Mueckenheim has
> > with this at all.

> I haven't been following that closely, but Cantor's language here is
> vague in the sense that some quantifiers need to be inserted to make the
> meaning precise, and there is more than one way to do that. I am guided
> mainly by a sense that Cantor would not make a Mueckenheim-like mistake
> in explaining cardinalities.

I see no other possible interpretation in the original German (at least,
when German works approximately the same as Dutch).

> > > I may be wrong, but I interpret the quoted passage to mean:
> > > 1. The cardinality of the set of all finite ordinals is aleph_0.
> > > 2. The cardinality of the set of all ordinals having cardinality
> > > aleph_0 is aleph_1.
> > > 3. The cardinality of the set of all ordinals having cardinality
> > > aleph_1 is aleph_2.
> > > and so on. This fits with the quotation I provided yesterday.

Perhaps, but that would be a strange use of the word 'abgez?hlt'.

> > Yes, that was from a title in the Dover edition, section 16. I do not
> > know how it relates to his original works. His original works were in
> > Mathematischen Annalen in a sequence of articles. That is were I quote
> > from. But I see the Dover edition is also in our library, so I will
> > also check that.

The Dover edition covers pages 282 to 351 of the 'Gesammelte Abhandlungen',
originally published in Math. Annalen 1895 and 1897. The quote I gave comes
from earlier publications, 1879-1884 (pages 139 to 247 of the Abhandlungen).
In that time he may have changed his position quite a bit (note that also
during that time he found the diagonal proof).
--
dik t. winter, cwi, kruislaan 413, 1098 sj amsterdam, nederland, +31205924131
home: bovenover 215, 1025 jn amsterdam, nederland; http://www.cwi.nl/~dik/
From: Randy Poe on

mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
> Randy Poe schrieb:
>
>
> > > The cardinal numbers of the sets of balls residing in the vase
> >
> > Crucial phrase missing: The cardinality f(t) of the set of balls in
> > the vase at time t STRICTLY LESS THAN ZERO...
>
> Either we can conclude from f(t) on f(0)
> Or we canot at all talk about infinity.

That's an incorrect statement. The fact that we have a
function such that f(0) is not equal to lim(t->0-) f(t)
has nothing to do with whether we can or can't talk
about infinity.

Discontinuous functions such as step functions
are perfectly common in mathematics, physics and
engineering.

> > > are also
> > > natural numbers. f(t) = 9, 18, 27, ... which grow without end. How can
> > > such a function take on the value zero?
> >
> > Because the set of balls at t=0 is not one of these sets. t=0 is not
> > a time strictly less than zero.
>
> I agree. But then the set at t = 0 is undefined.

No, the fact that an object is not a member of a particular
set does not mean the object is undefined.

If I tell you my pet is not a member of the set of
dogs, that does not mean I know nothing about
my pet or that my pet is undefined.

- Randy