From: Lester Zick on
On 15 Dec 2006 14:56:27 -0800, "Jonathan Hoyle" <jonhoyle(a)mac.com>
wrote:

>> In other words, Jonathan, Aristotelian syllogistic inference only
>> yields truisms not truth. It can't tell us what the truth of anything
>> actually is only whether or not it's true in relation to constituent
>> premises of equally problematic truth.
>
>I cannot imagine how anyone would have expected it any different. OF
>COURSE the truth of a statement is based upon the truth of its
>premises.

Actually the truth of a statement only rests on the falsity of its
alternatives. If you regress the truth of a conclusion to the truth of
premises you have achieved very little in exhaustive terms unless
those constituent premises are themselves in fact true. Yet the truth
of those premises remains as problematic in exhaustive terms as the
truth of the conclusion itself to begin with.

> I don't believe Aristotle thought his work failed to
>"produce the truth he hoped it would yield". I think you have
>unrealistic expectations from logic.

And I disagree.Historically metaphyscists of the time were preocuppied
with one primary problem, the truth of everything. And Aristotle
developed his organon or instrument of syllogistic inference precisely
for that purpose, to analyze and demonstrate the truth of everything.
That's what drove him to pursue discovery of ultimate basic premises.
He realized that in the context of syllogistic inference determination
of any truth rested squarely on the truth of ultimate basic premises
from which various conclusions could be derived. That's where
empiricism comes from, the search for true ultimate basic premises.

>Were you imagining that Aristotle was planning to come up with a system
>which would determine the truth or falsity of a statement A,
>irrespective of any premises? What if A = "God exists."? Or how about
>A = "John is handsome."?

I think Aristotle like other metaphyscists of the time was driven by
exactly that. Truth of constituent premises is driven by conformance
with the truth of conclusions and not vice versa.If a given conclusion
is true you can only spread the truth of that conclusion in certain
ways across whatever constituent premises you claim. That's where the
"B" in "if A is B and B is C" comes from. Assuming "A is C" that truth
can only be spread to constituent premises through some common middle
term whose differences with A on the one hand and C on the other
account for differences between A and C accurately and exactly.

>> The truth of conclusions is not
>> inherited from the truth of constituent premises as syllogistic
>> inference implies and Aristotle thought. The truth of any conclusion
>> must be demonstrated in its own right by demonstrating the falsity of
>> alternatives by finite tautological regression to self contradictory
>> alternatives.
>
>Ridiculous. How would you apply such a principle to the Reimann
>Hypothesis? Or to something non-mathematical, like a non-reproducible
>historical fact like "the U.S. went to the moon." Without *some*
>assumptions (or in mathematics, axioms), you cannot arrive to any
>conclusions of truth. (In the aforementioned example, there are
>conspiratorialists who deny some of the more basic assumptions that you
>might not realize you are even making.)

So I"m not only supposed to address the demonstration of truth but
actually to correct all the intellectual baggage of the last several
thousand years in twenty questions? At least my assumptions regarding
demonstrations of truth turn out to be true and are demonstrably so
whereas your assumptions of truth turn out to be nothing but facile
truisms and demonstrably nothing more. I'm actually explaining what
empiricism is, where it comes from, why it is what it is, and how it
came to be. You can bellyache all you want but that's the truth.

Just take a look at your exclamation "ridiculous" above. That comes
from a sudden realization that there is more than one way to examine
and determine truth in mechanical terms and that your entire adult
life you may have been looking at the problem of truth the wrong way
around.

I'm not in the business of making assumptions whose truth cannot be
demonstrated. That's what mathematikers are for.

>Perhaps I misunderstand where you are coming from, but I very much
>doubt that Aristotle held the expectations you had for logic.

I don't hold any expectations for Aristotelian logic and syllogistic
inference which I haven't pretty much already covered. It is what it
is and it isn't much more. The fact that syllogistic inference has
been used in science and math uniformly since its discovery is more a
testament to its exposition and formal systemization by Aristotle than
any actual correctness.

I don't know whether you misunderstand me or not but I assure you I'm
not just out here beating my chops for amusement. Aristotle just got
it exactly backwards and I'm here to correct the problem by reducing
the problem of the truth of everything to its ultimate foundation in a
finte tautological regression to self contradictory alternatives.

~v~~
From: mueckenh on

Virgil schrieb:

> We see it but do not believe that it does what you say it does.
>
> Your example assumes a bijection and constructs a "rational relation".

I assume nothing but that every path gets a share of that edge through
which the path runs.
You cannot deny that an edge must exist if a path runs through it.
I prove that there are enough shares to build 2 edges per path.


> But in the absence of any original bijection there is no assurance of
> any final bijection by such construction.

Without any original bijection we can conclude from
1.1 ---> a
1.2 ---> b
2.1 ---> a
2.2 ---> b
and the knowledge that
1.1 U 1.2 = 1 and
2.1 U 2.2 = 2
than there are as many nunmbers as letters.

> And assuming what you are trying to prove is a no-no.

no * no = yes

Regards, WM

From: mueckenh on

Virgil schrieb:

> > > > Do you believe that paths beginn to run separated wihout any edge being
> > > > inolved?
> > >
> > > No. And so what? But only looking at the paths that way you never get
> > > the full infinite paths.
> >
> > If we look at least at one part of each path, then we look at all paths.
>
> Not so. To separate any infinite path from /all/ other infinite paths
> you must look at ALL its edges, not just some of them.
>
The first n edges play no role.
>
Regards, WM

From: mueckenh on

William Hughes schrieb:

> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
> > William Hughes schrieb:
> >
> > > mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
> > > > William Hughes schrieb:
> > > >
> > > > > mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
> > > > > > Virgil schrieb:
> > > > > >
> > > > > > > > > (It is contained in the union of all lines, but the
> > > > > > > > > union of all lines is not a line)
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > That is a void assertion unless you can prove it by showing that
> > > > > > > > element by which the union differes from all the lines.
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > > Not quite. In order to achieve that the diagoal is not in any linem all
> > > > > > > that is required is:
> > > > > > > Given any line there is an element of the diagonal not in THAT line.
> > > > > > > It is not requires that:
> > > > > > > There is an element of the diagonal that is not in any line.
> > > > > >
> > > > > >
> > > > > > For linear sets you cannot help yourself by stating that the diagonal
> > > > > > differs form line A by element b and from line B by element a, but a is
> > > > > > in A and b is in B. This outcome is wrong.
> > > > > >
> > > > > > Therefore your reasoning "there is an element of the diagonal not in
> > > > > > THAT line. It is not required that: There is an element of the diagonal
> > > > > > that is not in any line." is inapplicable for linear sets. You see it
> > > > > > best if you try to give an example using a finite element a or b.
> > > > >
> > > > >
> > > > > In every finite example the line that contains
> > > > > the diagonal is the last line.
> > > >
> > > > Every example with natural numbers (finite lines) is a finite example.
> > > >
> > > > > Your claim is that there is a line which contains the diagonal.
> > > >
> > > > Because a diagonal longer than any line is not a diagonal.
> > > >
> > > > > Call it L_D. Question: "Is L_D the last line?"
> > > >
> > > > There is no last line
> > >
> > > Then, there is a line that comes after L_D.
> > >
> > > Therefore :L_D does not contain every element
> > > that can be shown to exist in the diagonal.
> >
> > All elements that can be shown to exist in the diagonal can be shown to
> > exist in one single line.
> >
>
> Call it L_D
>
> L_D contains a largest element. n.
>
> L_D is not the last line, so there is
> a line with element n+1,
>
> Element n+1 can be shown to exist in the diagonal.


Element n+1 can be shown to exist in L_D (which is obviously a line
containing n+1).

All elements that can be shown to exist in the diagonal can be shown to
exist in one single line.

The easiest way to see that would be to name all elements of the
diagonal. Every element is a natural number and as such a set
containing all the smaller natural numbers. In fact it is irrelevant
whether you write
1
2
3
or

123.

If the diagonal contains only finite segments, then each one is in a
line and vice versa each line is in the diagonal. Only if there is an
infinite segment in the diagonal, then it is not in a line. But in
order to have the infinite segment, you need an element which is not in
any line, i.e., an infinite element. Since an infinite element is not a
natural number, you have not such an element available, neither in the
diagonal nor in any line.

Regards, WM

From: William Hughes on

mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
> William Hughes schrieb:
>
> > mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
> > > William Hughes schrieb:
> > >
> > > > mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
> > > > > William Hughes schrieb:
> > > > >
> > > > > > mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
> > > > > > > Virgil schrieb:
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > > > (It is contained in the union of all lines, but the
> > > > > > > > > > union of all lines is not a line)
> > > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > > That is a void assertion unless you can prove it by showing that
> > > > > > > > > element by which the union differes from all the lines.
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > Not quite. In order to achieve that the diagoal is not in any linem all
> > > > > > > > that is required is:
> > > > > > > > Given any line there is an element of the diagonal not in THAT line.
> > > > > > > > It is not requires that:
> > > > > > > > There is an element of the diagonal that is not in any line.
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > > For linear sets you cannot help yourself by stating that the diagonal
> > > > > > > differs form line A by element b and from line B by element a, but a is
> > > > > > > in A and b is in B. This outcome is wrong.
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > > Therefore your reasoning "there is an element of the diagonal not in
> > > > > > > THAT line. It is not required that: There is an element of the diagonal
> > > > > > > that is not in any line." is inapplicable for linear sets. You see it
> > > > > > > best if you try to give an example using a finite element a or b.
> > > > > >
> > > > > >
> > > > > > In every finite example the line that contains
> > > > > > the diagonal is the last line.
> > > > >
> > > > > Every example with natural numbers (finite lines) is a finite example.
> > > > >
> > > > > > Your claim is that there is a line which contains the diagonal.
> > > > >
> > > > > Because a diagonal longer than any line is not a diagonal.
> > > > >
> > > > > > Call it L_D. Question: "Is L_D the last line?"
> > > > >
> > > > > There is no last line
> > > >
> > > > Then, there is a line that comes after L_D.
> > > >
> > > > Therefore :L_D does not contain every element
> > > > that can be shown to exist in the diagonal.
> > >
> > > All elements that can be shown to exist in the diagonal can be shown to
> > > exist in one single line.
> > >
> >
> > Call it L_D
> >
> > L_D contains a largest element. n.
> >
> > L_D is not the last line, so there is
> > a line with element n+1,
> >
> > Element n+1 can be shown to exist in the diagonal.
>
>
> Element n+1 can be shown to exist in L_D (which is obviously a line
> containing n+1).

No. L_D is bounded. The largest element of L_D is n.
L_D does not contain n+1.

- William Hughes