From: Dik T. Winter on
In article <1160404669.240794.298920(a)i42g2000cwa.googlegroups.com> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
> Dik T. Winter schrieb:
>
> > The balls in vase problem suffers because the problem is not well-defined.
> > Most people in the discussion assume some implicit definitions, well that
> > does not work as other people assume other definitions. How do you
> > *define* the number of balls at noon? You can not use limits, because the
> > limit does not exist when you use standard mathematics.
>
> But we can safely say that lim{n-->oo}n = 0 is false.

Yes, it is false because that liit does not exis.

> lim{n-->oo}n can be estimated by lim{n-->oo} 1/n = 0.

You can not estimate something that does not exist.

> So using standard
> > definitions there is no answer. More precise, given the sequence of sets:
> > {1, ..., 10)
> > {2, ..., 20}
> > {3, ..., 30}
> > etc., is there a limit? Well, no, there is no defined limit unless you
> > define what a limit of sets looks like. I have never seen a definition
> > that tells me how the limit of a sequence is defined. The limit of the
> > size of the sets also gives no answer, because that limit does not exist.
> > Strange enough, when somebody goes on to define things, *you* question his
> > definitions, rather than the result.
>
> The limit {1,...,n} for n-->oo is N, if N does exist.

By what definitions?
--
dik t. winter, cwi, kruislaan 413, 1098 sj amsterdam, nederland, +31205924131
home: bovenover 215, 1025 jn amsterdam, nederland; http://www.cwi.nl/~dik/
From: mueckenh on

Dik T. Winter schrieb:

> In article <virgil-F7008E.15353808102006(a)comcast.dca.giganews.com> Virgil <virgil(a)comcast.net> writes:
> ...
> > If one chooses to work within ZFC or NBG, the vase is empty at noon.
>
> I doubt this. The problem is not defined with enough precision to state
> that. It has not been defined by most what is meant with "the number of
> balls in the vase at noon". Of course, you can use that the infinite
> intersection of sets does exist (and that is what you are using), and
> so get at the result.

Then the infinite intersection of the cardinal numbers A(t) with t = 1,
2, 3, ... of the set in the vase after completing action t does also
exist. It is 9.

Regards, WM

From: mueckenh on

William Hughes schrieb:

> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
> > Virgil schrieb:
> >
> > > > We know, not by
> > > > intuition, but by logic, that the vase at any time contains more balls
> > > > than have escaped.
> > >
> > > Absolutely false.
> >
> > Bold words, but unfortunately simply wrong. The contents of the vase
> > increases any time by 9 balls.
> >
> > > Before any balls are put in the vase, it is empty, and
> > > after al balls have been removed from the vase it is equally empty.
> > > It is only between these time that there are any balls in the vase at
> > > all.
> > >
> > We have a contradiction n ZFC
> > 1) Every ball will have left the vase at noon.
> > 2) At noon there are more balls in the vase than at any time before.
> >
>
>
> Nope.
>
> No one disagrees with 1.
>
> 2 does not follow. It is true that at any time t before noon,
> there will be more balls in the vase than at any time s before t.
> But it is not true that:
> anything that is true at any time t before noon
> must be true at noon
>
> (At any time t before noon only
> a finite number steps have been taken. This does not imply that
> at noon only a finite number of steps have been taken).
>
> Consider a set of propositions A, with the property that
>
> if p is in A and p is true at any time before noon, then
> p is true at noon.
>
> Some propositions (e.g. "the vase exists") are in A.

That is pure intuition. Why should it exist at noon? Is there an axiom
of ZFC?

> Some propositions (e.g. "only a finite number of steps have been
> taken")
> are not in A.
>
> You have only intuition to tell you that "there are more balls in the
> vase than at any time previous" is in A.

No. I have the estimation Lim{n-->}n > 0. If you call this "intuition",
then some more fundamental laws of mathematics are invalid than can be
recovered by set theory.

Regards, WM

From: mueckenh on

William Hughes schrieb:

> > > In my view we have not gotten very far. We still have
> > > the result that there is no list of all real numbers
> >
> > That is not astonishing, because there are only those few real numbers
> > which can be constructed.
>
> Few? Few compared to what.

Compared to the assumed set of uncountably many.

> The real numbers that cannot
> be constructed? According to you they don't exist. But even
> these "few" real numbers cannot be listed!

Nevertheless the diagonal proof shows only that there are elements of a
countable set which have not yet been constructed.
>
> >
> > > (we need to reinterpret our terms, real numbers are
> > > computable real numbers, and a list is a computable
> > > function from the natural numbers to the (computable) real
> > > numbers).
> > >
> > > If it gives you a warm fuzzy to say that
> > > "Every ball will be removed at some time before noon",
> >
> > No. To say that every ball will be removed, is wrong, because there is
> > not every ball.
> >
>
> If it gives you a warm fuzzy to say
>
> "For any natural N, the ball numbered N will be removed from
> the vase before noon"

There is not "any natural" but only those which we can define. There is
a largest natural which ever will be defined. Hence mathematics in the
universe and in eternity has to do with only a very small sequence of
naturals.

Writing 1,2,3,... is but cheating

Regards, WM

From: mueckenh on

William Hughes schrieb:

> > My conclusion is:
> > Either
> > (S is covered up to every position <==> S is completely covered by at
> > least one element of the infinite set of finite unary numbers
>
> Straight quatifier dyslexia. The fact that "for every x there exists
> a y such that" does not imply "there exists a y such that for every x"

A nonsense argument. Your assertion is wrong in a linear set. Give an
example where the linear set covers a number which is not covered by
one member of the linear set.

Regards, WM