From: Tom Roberts on
Tom Van Flandern wrote:
> Tom Roberts writes:
>> [Roberts]: Since you accept geometry for [straight lines], you ought
>> to be able to accept geometry for the rest. Why don't you?
>
> Geometry cannot create 3-space forces. A purely geometric GR would
> contain no dynamics.

There is no necessity to "create" what you call "3-space forces". This
is physics, and you cannot force your personal desires and prejudices
onto nature. The requirement is that GR construct an accurate model of
the world (including the behavior of objects in it), and it does.

Do you seriously think physicists would accept GR if
it did not accurately describe the behavior of a rock
when one drops it? So using your terminology, the geometry
of GR clearly DOES "create 3-space forces".

The purely geometric GR most definitely does include dynamics. It seems
that you keep thinking that geometry is 3-dimensional; that is false: in
GR it is 4-dimensional, and the geometry of spaceTIME includes all the
motions and (coordinate) accelerations you ascribe to "3-space forces".

In the ADM formalism, one determines the time evolution
of 3-d space, and by golly even in that formulation a
dropped rock will fall. Of course this 3-d space need
not be Euclidean as you insist....



Ask yourself this: if you were to ask any GR expert in the world the
question "What is the essence of GR and how it describes gravity?", do
you seriously think you would get an answer like "Gravity is a 3-space
force"??? You know as well as I that the answer you would get is along
the lines of "In GR the geometry is dynamic, and what we call gravity is
merely an aspect of the geometry." Because that _IS_ the essence of GR.
But what you are discussing is not GR. <shrug>


Tom Roberts
From: Vern on
On Sep 10, 6:20 pm, Tom Roberts <tjroberts...(a)sbcglobal.net> wrote:

<snip>

> Ask yourself this: if you were to ask any GR expert in the world the
> question "What is the essence of GR and how it describes gravity?", do
> you seriously think you would get an answer like "Gravity is a 3-space
> force"??? You know as well as I that the answer you would get is along
> the lines of "In GR the geometry is dynamic, and what we call gravity is
> merely an aspect of the geometry." Because that _IS_ the essence of GR.
> But what you are discussing is not GR. <shrug>

If the field interpretation of GR is used, then gravity is a force and
not just a function of the manifold as your geometric interpretation
posits. Moreover, that force propagates faster than light, which is,
of course, his point. In my opinion, you have never satisfactorily
answered his claim that in the geometric interpretation a straight
line may be a curve, but there is no reason for an object to follow
that curve unless it is already moving. You still have to have a
larger mass attracting the object to make it move along the geodesic
and that's action at a distance. The field interpretation, on the
other hand, requires a medium to constitute the field.

Vern

From: Tom Roberts on
Juan R. wrote:
> On Sep 8, 4:55 pm, Tom Roberts <tjroberts...(a)sbcglobal.net> wrote:
>> There is no doubt that the central equation of GR is the Einstein field
>> equation. "What you were taught" does not describe all solutions of the
>> EFE, and hence is not all of GR.
>
> It is specially ironic calling the EFE (Einstein FIELD equation),
> whereas rejecting the field interpretation of gravitation in favor of
> the more 'modern' geometric view where h_ab has not field
> interpretation.

In modern physics and mathematics, a field is a function on the
manifold. The Einstein field equation relates the Einstein curvature
tensor FIELD to the energy-momentum tensor FIELD, and it is usually
interpreted as defining the metric tensor FIELD. And the metric on a
manifold is what we mean by its geometry. I am not advocating anything
unusual here, and my statements here are simply mainstream GR. <shrug>

Note that your "h_ab" does not appear in the EFE. It does, however,
appear in the small-field APPROXIMATION to the EFE. And in that
approximation it is not truly a field, because it depends (implicitly)
on the background metric to which it represents perturbations.

So the "irony" is all in your head, not my writings.


> That after many queries from my part you still did not provide a
> simple paper favouring the geometric formulation over the field one is
> not ironic but depresing from a scientific view.

Hmmm. Your notion of "scientific view" does not correspond to mine, or
to the mainstream of science.

In science, we TEST THEORIES, and GR has been well tested within the
solar system and in a few specific extra-solar systems. The words
related to interpretations of theories are not directly testable.


> Once again, when and where the geometric formulation
> G_ab = k T_ab (e.g. Wald textbook)
> has proven to be superior to the field formulation
> G_ab = k T_ab (proper EFE)
> ?

<giggle> Expecting clairvoyance of your readers is silly.


But I repeat: my main disagreement with van Flandern is his CLAIM to be
using GR, when he manifestly is not doing so. And I also disagree with
his claims of propagation >>c that he thinks are general, but are
actually theory specific and do not apply to GR.


>> We observe strong, weak, and electromagnetic interactions, none of which
>> propagate faster than c -- what makes gravity so special?
>> Oh wait -- Coulomb forces ACT AS IF they propagate
>> instantaneously, [...]
>
> Everything you say here is wrong.

"Extraordinary claims require extraordinary proof."
-- James "The Amazing" Randi

You are claiming the every E&M textbook is wrong. That's extraordinary.

(I'm looking at your references.)


> DOGMA: "Gravity and EM are delayed by c". Amen.

You rely on ambiguity in wording. When carefully phrased, this is
certainly not mere "DOGMA" in GR, where it has been rigorously proven
that no energy, momentum, or information can be transferred outside the
light cone (i.e. locally faster than c).

The observation that the "gravitational force" and the
Coulomb force vectors point directly at the _current_
position of their source (rather than its retarded
position), is not "proof" that these forces propagate
instantaneously (or >>c). It is merely a measurement that
is to be compared to the predictions of a theory. The
predictions of GR and classical electrodynamics agree
with the measurements, even though in both theories the
changes to fields propagate at c (not >c).


Note: Underlying my arguments is knowledge that at base the issue is
about "propagating" and whether or not that really applies, especially
as a model of some physical property of such systems. Whether or not the
fields "propagate" is COORDINATE DEPENDENT, and that makes it
inappropriate as a model of any physical phenomenon. (In the rest frame
of the source, these fields are static and eternal, and no "propagation"
is involved).


Tom Roberts
From: Tom Roberts on
Vern wrote:
> If the field interpretation of GR is used, then gravity is a force and
> not just a function of the manifold as your geometric interpretation
> posits.

Hmmm. Be careful calling this "the field interpretation", as that
involves a PUN on "field". For instance: the connection is not a field,
but the connection _is_ the "gravitational force" being discussed. So
one must be ever vigilant about PUNs -- different people use the word
"field" with significantly different meanings: I use it in the modern
sense (function on the manifold), but van Flandern, Juan R., and others
use it with an ancient meaning (as do you above).


> Moreover, that force propagates faster than light, which is,
> of course, his point.

Hmmm. This is so only if "propagates" is an appropriate concept to use.
In GR no energy, momentum, or information can be propagated faster than
c, so I don't think it is an appropriate concept here. At least in GR.

IOW: I think this elevates mere words and math to the status of
"physical phenomena", and that's not sensible. Note, in particular, that
this "faster than light propagation" occurs ONLY in certain coordinate
systems, and as nature obviously uses no coordinates, such
coordinate-dependent quantities cannot be valid models of physical
phenomena.

[E.g. in locally-inertial coordinates there is no
"gravitational force", so how can it "propagate"???]


Say, instead, that the force vector points toward the current position
of the source, not at its retarded position. This avoids the
inflammatory "propagates >>c", and is in any case a direct description
of the situation. Now one can compare this to the predictions of GR, and
one finds that those predictions agree (even though nothing propagates
faster than c). That "propagates >>c" is a THEORY-DEPENDENT
interpretation, not a direct experimental result, and it is invalid in GR.


> In my opinion, you have never satisfactorily
> answered his claim that in the geometric interpretation a straight
> line may be a curve, but there is no reason for an object to follow
> that curve unless it is already moving. You still have to have a
> larger mass attracting the object to make it move along the geodesic
> and that's action at a distance.

I'm not sure what you are saying/asking, but here's an attempt at a
response:

In the Schw. manifold of GR external to the earth (ignoring its
rotation, atmosphere, and all other massive objects), a small stone will
fall when dropped. In coordinates fixed to the earth surface, that stone
was initially at rest in my hand, but when I let go it immediately falls
to the ground (both in the real world and in the predictions of GR). So
the stone "followed that curve without already moving" -- see how bad it
is to use COORDINATE-DEPENDENT quantities (like "moving") to attempt to
describe physical phenomena?

This falling is not action "at a distance" -- at each and every point
along its trajectory, the stone simply continues along its geodesic
path, and that is COMPLETELY determined by the geometry at each point.
In GR there is no need to invoke "action at a distance" at all, because
while falling the trajectory of the stone is not affected by the earth
at all (after all, the earth is not located where the stone is located).
The geometry of the manifold is of course affected by the earth, and the
geometry is what determines the geodesics, but the stone is completely
oblivious to the presence of the earth, and only knows the geometry
WHERE IT IS LOCATED.

Do not be confused by van Flandern's PUNs -- he
uses "geometry" to mean 3-space, while I use it in
the normal way of GR to refer to the full 4-d spacetime
manifold with metric.


A better description is that while I'm holding it the stone does not
follow a geodesic path because of the upward force exerted by my hand;
when I release it that force is no longer applied to it, and the stone
naturally follows the geodesic path determined by its position and
4-velocity at the moment of release (remember its 4-velocity is the
tangent 4-vector to its worldline). That geodesic, of course,
accelerates downward (using those same coordinates fixed to the surface).


> The field interpretation, on the
> other hand, requires a medium to constitute the field.

Not necessarily. But, of course, no such medium has been observed, and
it must have quite remarkable and counter-intuitive properties. For
instance, with a medium involved it's not clear how to "propagate
instantaneous action at a distance".... Nor is it clear how such a
medium could exert gravitational forces without itself being affected,
and without impeding the motion of planets (i.e. it has no viscous drag
and yet exerts "force" on objects). No real fluid or material comes
anywhere close to having the requisite properties....


Tom Roberts
From: Vern on
On Sep 12, 11:40 am, Tom Roberts <tjroberts...(a)sbcglobal.net> wrote:
> Vernwrote:

<snip>

> > In my opinion, you have never satisfactorily
> > answered his claim that in the geometric interpretation a straight
> > line may be a curve, but there is no reason for an object to follow
> > that curve unless it is already moving. You still have to have a
> > larger mass attracting the object to make it move along the geodesic
> > and that's action at a distance.
>
> I'm not sure what you are saying/asking, but here's an attempt at a
> response:
>
> In the Schw. manifold of GR external to the earth (ignoring its
> rotation, atmosphere, and all other massive objects), a small stone will
> fall when dropped. In coordinates fixed to the earth surface, that stone
> was initially at rest in my hand, but when I let go it immediately falls
> to the ground (both in the real world and in the predictions of GR). So
> the stone "followed that curve without already moving" -- see how bad it
> is to use COORDINATE-DEPENDENT quantities (like "moving") to attempt to
> describe physical phenomena?
>
> This falling is not action "at a distance" -- at each and every point
> along its trajectory, the stone simply continues along its geodesic
> path, and that is COMPLETELY determined by the geometry at each point.
> In GR there is no need to invoke "action at a distance" at all, because
> while falling the trajectory of the stone is not affected by the earth
> at all (after all, the earth is not located where the stone is located).
> The geometry of the manifold is of course affected by the earth, and the
> geometry is what determines the geodesics, but the stone is completely
> oblivious to the presence of the earth, and only knows the geometry
> WHERE IT IS LOCATED.
>
> Do not be confused by van Flandern's PUNs -- he
> uses "geometry" to mean 3-space, while I use it in
> the normal way of GR to refer to the full 4-d spacetime
> manifold with metric.
>
> A better description is that while I'm holding it the stone does not
> follow a geodesic path because of the upward force exerted by my hand;
> when I release it that force is no longer applied to it, and the stone
> naturally follows the geodesic path determined by its position and
> 4-velocity at the moment of release (remember its 4-velocity is the
> tangent 4-vector to its worldline). That geodesic, of course,
> accelerates downward (using those same coordinates fixed to the surface).

First Tom, thank you for the respectful reply.

In your last sentence above, you say that the geodesic accelerates
downward (wrt the surface of the Earth). So then it sounds like you
are saying that the fact that the geodesic is accelerating downward
would be the cause of an object affected by that geodesic moving
downward.

In the absence of gravity, does this principle mean that an object is
still being moved by the geodesic, or would an object placed in the
geodesic remain motionless?

Vern

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