From: Michael Gordge on
On Dec 13, 1:01 pm, Immortalista <extro...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:

> Does inductive reasoning lead to knowledge?

Clue for the idiots, preceeding reasoning with an adjective does not
change the meaning of reasoing.

MG
From: Tim on
On Dec 13, 2:29 am, Michael Gordge <mikegor...(a)xtra.co.nz> wrote:
> On Dec 13, 1:01 pm, Immortalista <extro...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
>
> > Does inductive reasoning lead to knowledge?
>
> Clue for the idiots, preceeding reasoning with an adjective does not
> change the meaning of reasoing.
>
> MG

So then deduction and induction are the same thing? Talk about idiocy!
From: Aatu Koskensilta on
Michael Gordge <mikegordge(a)xtra.co.nz> writes:

> On Dec 13, 1:01�pm, Immortalista <extro...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
>
>> Does inductive reasoning lead to knowledge?
>
> Clue for the idiots, preceeding reasoning with an adjective does not
> change the meaning of reasoing.

Preceding Kant with an adjective also does nothing! But do we not find,
in the official Objectivist doctrine and canon, no distinction between
inductive and other kinds of reasoning?

--
Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensilta(a)uta.fi)

"Wovon man nicht sprechan kann, dar�ber muss man schweigen"
- Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus
From: ZerkonXXXX on
On Sat, 12 Dec 2009 18:01:56 -0800, Immortalista wrote:

> What is the justification for either:

Self evident... or ... If you have to ask...

The base is reasoning. Here reason is being classified as one type or
another. So what is the justification for these classifications which
seems to force difference?

Taking these outside their own world and placing them into the world of
human utility in which they both might address a problem other than
themselves (eg: "why was The Red-Headed League Dissolved?"), the answer
becomes elementary.
From: Tim on
On Dec 13, 6:27 am, Aatu Koskensilta <aatu.koskensi...(a)uta.fi> wrote:
> Michael Gordge <mikegor...(a)xtra.co.nz> writes:
> > On Dec 13, 1:01 pm, Immortalista <extro...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
>
> >> Does inductive reasoning lead to knowledge?
>
> > Clue for the idiots, preceeding reasoning with an adjective does not
> > change the meaning of reasoing.
>
> Preceding Kant with an adjective also does nothing! But do we not find,
> in the official Objectivist doctrine and canon, no distinction between
> inductive and other kinds of reasoning?
>

Surely what we find in the Objectivist dogma is a complete and utter
lack of reasoning.

> --
> Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensi...(a)uta.fi)
>
> "Wovon man nicht sprechan kann, darüber muss man schweigen"
>  - Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus