From: bassam king karzeddin on
Fermat's Last theorem short proof

We have the following general equation (using the general binomial theorem)

(x+y+z)^p =p* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)*N(x,y,z) + x^p+y^p+z^p

Where
N (x, y, z) is integer function in terms of (x, y, z)
P is odd prime number
(x, y, z) are three (none zero) co prime integers?

Assuming a counter example (x, y, z) exists such that (x^p+y^p+z^p=0)


(x+y+z)^p =p* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)*N (x, y, z)

CASE-1
If (p=3) implies N (x, y, z) = 1, so we have

(x+y+z)^3 =3* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)

Assuming (3) does not divide (x*y*z), then it does not divide (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z),
So the above equation does not have solution
(That is by dividing both sides by 3, you get 9 times an integer equal to an integer which is not divisible by 3, which of course is impossible
I think proof is completed for (p=3, and 3 is not a factor of (x*y*z)

My question to the specialist, is my proof a new one, more over I will not feel strange if this was known few centuries back

Thanking you a lot

Bassam King Karzeddin
Al-Hussein Bin Talal University
JORDAN
From: Randy Poe on
On Feb 21, 9:51 am, bassam king karzeddin <bas...(a)ahu.edu.jo> wrote:
> Fermat's Last theorem short proof
>
> We have the following general equation (using the general binomial theorem)
>
> (x+y+z)^p =p* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)*N(x,y,z) + x^p+y^p+z^p
>
> Where
> N (x, y, z) is integer function in terms of (x, y, z)

Are you claiming this is true in general?

Counterexample:
x=3, y=4, z=5, p=5.
(x+y+z)^p = 248832
(x^p + y^p + z^p) = 4392
(x+y)(x+z)(y+z) = 560

=> p*N(x,y,z) = (248832 - 4392)/560 = 436.5


> P is odd prime number
> (x, y, z) are three (none zero) co prime integers?
>
> Assuming a counter example (x, y, z) exists such that (x^p+y^p+z^p=0)

How can this be if x, y, z, p > 0?

- Randy

From: bassam king karzeddin on
> How can this be if x, y, z, p > 0?
>
> - Randy
>
Hi Randy
I may have forgotten to answer your second question

For a purpose of FLT I have defined (x, y, z) as integer numbers (I mean positive and negative numbers), so if

x^p+y^p+z^p=0, then obviously not all of them (x,y,z)are positive,
but in general one can see and prove (using the general binomial theorem) that the following identity holds true always

(x+y+z)^n = n*(x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)*f(x,y,z) + x^n +y^n +z^n

where n is odd positive integer
(x,y,z) belong to C, complex numbers
f(x,y,z) is function in terms of (x,y,z)

My Regards

B.Karzeddin
From: bassam king karzeddin on
Hello all

Why not come out of your holes and say a word of truth?

strangely, If some one makes a mistake then many outstanding mathematicians will appear immediately correcting or harassing the OP

I will be grateful and happier if my proof is wrong, or worthless or known before

I'm also in my own way to make a much simpler and shorter proof that you may teach your kids before going to school
Here, I will not stop, and my aim is far a head of FLT.

My Regards
B.Karzeddin
From: Raymond Burhoe on
I'm not a mathematician, but maybe I can help:

> We have the following general equation which any
> mathematician can prove(using the general binomial
> theorem)
>
> (x+y+z)^p =p* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)*N(x,y,z) +
> x^p+y^p+z^p
>
> Where
> N (x, y, z) is odd integer function in terms of
> (x, y, z) and is prime to (p)
> P is odd prime number
> (x, y, z) are three distinct(none zero) co prime
> integers?
>
> Assuming a counter example (x, y, z) exists such that
> (x^p+y^p+z^p=0)
>
> Then we have the following equation
>
>
> (x+y+z)^p =p* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)*N (x, y, z)
>
> CASE-1
> If (p=3) implies N (x, y, z) = 1, so we have
>
> (x+y+z)^3 =3* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)
>
> Assuming (3) does not divide (x*y*z), then it does
> not divide (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z),because
> All prime factors of (x+y) devide z,
> All prime factors of (x+z) devide y
> All prime factors of (y+z) devide x
> So the above equation does not have solution ,
> because 3 must be a prime factor of both sides of the
> above equation
> (That is by dividing both sides by 3, you get
> (3)^(3k-1),on the left hand and no (3) factor on the
> right hand of the above same equation,( where k is
> positive integer) , and that implies our wrong
> assumptiono of the existance of a counter example
> which of course is impossible
> I think proof is completed for (p=3, and 3 is not a
> factor of (x*y*z)

P = 3 is a special case, where (x + y + z) is a multiple of 3 but not a multiple of 9 whenever x*y*z is a nonmultiple of 3. It can be proved that any prime factor of x*y*z that is coprime to (x + y)(z + y)(z + x) must have the form 2pj + 1, so that it follows from the FLT equation that (x + y + z) = 0 (mod p^2). If you want anyone to believe your proof, you're going to have to prove your claim that N(x,y,z) is coprime to p when p > 4.

>
> The same arguments applies for any odd prime power p
> ,
> (that is only needed to prove FLT
> where (p) doesn't divide (x*y*z), as the following
> If x^p+y^p+z^p=0, implies
>
> (x+y+z)^p =p* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)*N(x,y,z)
>
> Assuming (p) does not divide (x*y*z), then (p) does
> not divide (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z),because
> All prime factors of (x+y) devide z,
> All prime factors of (x+z) devide y
> All prime factors of (y+z) devide x
>
> And we have gcd(p,N(x,y,z))=1
> So the above equation does not have solution ,
> because p must be a prime factor of both sides of the
> above equation
> (That is by dividing both sides by p, you get
> (p)^(p*k-1),on the left hand and no (p) factor on the
> right hand of the above same equation,( where k is
> positive integer) , and that implies our wrong
> assumptiono of the existance of a counter example
> which of course is impossible
>
> I think proof is completed for (p) any odd prime
> number, where (p) doesn't divide (x*y*z)
>
> The same arguments applies for any odd prime power p
> ,
> (that is only needed to prove FLT
>
>
> My question to the specialists, is my proof a new
> one, more over I will not feel strange if this was
> known few centuries back
>
> Thanking you a lot
>
> Bassam King Karzeddin
> Al-Hussein Bin Talal University
> JORDAN
>
>
> Message was edited by: bassam king karzeddin