From: Bob Kolker on
Eckard Blumschein wrote:

>
> No. Infinite quantities include e.g. an infinite amount of points.
> Infinite means: The process of quantification has not been finished or
> cannot be finished at all.


A non-empty set is infinite if and only if it can be put in one to one
correspondence with a proper subset of itself. That is the standard
definition of infinite for sets.

Bob Kolker

>
>
From: Virgil on
In article <456da0d5(a)news2.lightlink.com>,
Tony Orlow <tony(a)lightlink.com> wrote:

> Banach-Tarski is a proof by contradiction that set theory is out of
> whack.

What axiom(s) does the theorem contradict? A paradox is not a
self-contradiction, it is merely something that runs counter to one's
intuition.



> Point set topology loses measure, since points have no measure.

It does not "lose" measure, it merely ignores it.

> The axiom of choice is abused.

On the contrary, it is used to its fullest.
>
> Additive measure of infinite sets is possible with infinitesimals.

Or would be if any infinitesimals could exist in standard analysis.

But as they cannot, the issue is moot.
From: Bob Kolker on
MoeBlee wrote:

> Bob Kolker wrote:
>
>>The cardinal number of a set is the equivalence class of sets
>>with the same cardinality as the the given set.
>
>
> In what theory is this?

Standard set theory.

Bob Kolker
From: Virgil on
In article <456DCC3F.5020700(a)et.uni-magdeburg.de>,
Eckard Blumschein <blumschein(a)et.uni-magdeburg.de> wrote:

> On 11/29/2006 3:56 PM, Tony Orlow wrote:
>
> > Cardinality is generalized from the simple count of finite sets to the
> > infinite case. In the finite case, the cardinality of a set is exactly a
> > natural number, a quantity. In the infinite case, cardinality becomes
> > something more ephemeral,
>
> Epheremal means shortlived. We have a saying: Lies live short.
>
> but it still has its roots in the count of a set.
>
> Let's rather say in Cantor's illusion of allegedly being able to count
> the uncountable.
>
>
> >> What about when there is more than one type of measure that can be
> >> applied to a set, or none at all? What happens then?
>
> Then perhaps a red light will indicate logical error.

Does volume completely determine mass? Different measures measure
different things and need have any correlation.
From: MoeBlee on

Bob Kolker wrote:
> MoeBlee wrote:
>
> > Bob Kolker wrote:
> >
> >>The cardinal number of a set is the equivalence class of sets
> >>with the same cardinality as the the given set.
> >
> >
> > In what theory is this?
>
> Standard set theory.

Wrong.

The usual definition is that the cardinality of a set (or the cardinal
number of a set) is the least ordinal equinumerous with the set. That
is not the class of sets with the same cardinality as the given set. In
Z set theories, the class of sets having the same cardinality as the
given set is not even itself a set, let alone a cardinal number.

MoeBlee