From: Lester Zick on
On Wed, 6 Dec 2006 00:38:59 -0500, David Marcus
<DavidMarcus(a)alumdotmit.edu> wrote:

>Virgil wrote:
>> In order to discuss anything, there must be agreement on the meaning of
>> the terms to be used in that discussion. Thousands of mathematicians
>> have agreed on the meanings of certain mathematical terms, so that those
>> who wish to discuss things mathematical cast themselves into outer
>> darkness by insisting on using those terms to mean things at variance
>> with their standard meanings.
>>
>> If EB wants to express different meanings he must come up with unused
>> word or phrases to carry those meanings. Mathematics will not allow EB
>> to rewrite mathematical dictionaries to suit his whims.
>
>Or, clearly state what meaning he is giving to words.

On the other hand those thousands of mathematicians might consider the
truth of what they say.

~v~~
From: MoeBlee on
Bob Kolker wrote:
> David Marcus wrote:
> >
> >
> > As Virgil pointed out, "no bijection to the naturals" is not a correct
> > definition of "uncountable".
>
> Eh?
>
> See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uncountable
>
> In mathematics, an uncountable or nondenumerable set is a set which is
> not countable. Here, "countable" means countably infinite or finite, so
> by definition, all uncountable sets are infinite. Explicitly, a set X is
> uncountable if and only if there is an injection from the natural
> numbers N to X, but no injection from X to N.
>
> From the wiki article on countability.
>
> Do you see in error in the wikipedia entry on uncountability

Yes. Or at least I don't like the way they use 'nondenumerable'. A
denumerable set is one that is equinumerous with N. So a nondenumerable
set is not necessarily an uncountable set, since a set can fail to be
denumerable not just by being uncountable but by being finite.

Also, "a set X is uncountable if and only if there is an injection
from the natural numbers N to X, but no injection from X to N."

Don't we use the (countable) axiom of choice to show that N injects
into any uncountable set?

I prefer this set of definitions:

x is finite <-> x is equinumerous with a natural number

x is infinite <-> ~ x is finite

x is Dedekind infinite <-> x is equinumerous with a proper subset of x

x is Dedekind finite <-> ~ x is Dedekind infinite

x is denumerable <-> x is equinumerous with N

x is countable <-> x is finite or x is denumerable

x is uncountable <-> ~ x is countable

MoeBlee

From: Bob Kolker on
Eckard Blumschein wrote:
>
> As long as one merely intends to perform sandpit-mathematics.

Sandpit mathematics: Like manifold theory, topology, and category theory.

Bob Kolker
From: Bob Kolker on
Eckard Blumschein wrote:
>
> I did not say this. Please quote me carefully.
> The set of existing Dedekind cuts is finite. The set of feasible cuts is
> countable.

The set of Dedikind cuts is not finite. There is a Dedikind cut for each
rational number for starters. Why do you say such stupid things?

Bob Kolker

From: David Marcus on
Eckard Blumschein wrote:
> On 12/5/2006 7:06 PM, Tony Orlow wrote:
> > Eckard Blumschein wrote:
> >> On 12/1/2006 9:59 PM, Virgil wrote:
> >>
> >>> Depends on one's standard of "size".
> >>>
> >>> Two solids of the same surface area can have differing volumes because
> >>> different qualities of the sets of points that form them are being
> >>> measured.
> >>
> >> Both surface and volume are considered like continua in physics as long
> >> as the physical atoms do not matter.
> >> Sets of points (i.e. mathematical atoms) are arbitrarily attributed.
> >> There is no universal rule for how fine-grained the mesh has to be.
> >> Therefore one cannot ascribe more or less points to these quantities.
> >>
> >> Look at the subject: Galileo's paradox: The relations smaller, equally
> >> large, and larger are pointless in case of infinite quantities.
> >
> > Now, just a minute, Eckard. You're contradicting yourself, if these
> > objects are infinite sets of points. They have different measure.
>
> I did not consider measures. Let's get concrete. Are there more naturals
> than odd naturals? This question could easily be answered if there was a
> measure of size.

It can easily be answered once you say what you mean by "more". Why do
you think that common English words have unambiguous mathematical
meanings?

--
David Marcus