From: Anand Sivaram on
On Thu, May 20, 2010 at 19:15, <export(a)hope.cz> wrote:

> Let’s suppose this configuration
>
> |Server1| <----- |Server2| <----- |Client|
>
> A client sends a request that starts a script on Server2.The script (
> running on server2) from this server 2 will download a webpage from Server1.
>
> Is it possible to record Client’s IP on Server1, instead of Server2’s
> IP? In other words, Server1 will think the request for downloading is
> directly from Client.
> That is Server2’s IP will be “invisible” for Server1
>
> Is this possbile?
> Thanks
> Joe.
>
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Since it is a different session (because your script on server2 sends the
request to server1), it may not be possible. The ip packet is locally
generated on server2 because of the script is trying a request to server1.
Other options are the script may have to embed the ip address somehow to
server1. Or avoid the script on server2 and use NAT there.
From: thib on
export(a)hope.cz wrote:
> Is this possbile?

Look at IP address spoofing techniques, it's a broad subject. I would
consider identifying the client at the application level though (add support
for this to your protocol), if possible.

-thib


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From: Mark Allums on
On 5/20/2010 8:45 AM, export(a)hope.cz wrote:
> Let's suppose this configuration
>
> |Server1| <----- |Server2| <----- |Client|
>
> A client sends a request that starts a script on Server2.The script (
> running on server2) from this server 2 will download a webpage from
> Server1.
> Is it possible to record Client's IP on Server1, instead of Server2's
> IP? In other words, Server1 will think the request for downloading is
> directly from Client.
> That is Server2's IP will be “invisible” for Server1
>
> Is this possbile?


The diagram looks like a typical proxying situation. If you are trying
to avoid having someone identify you, it may not work as well as you
would like.

If your goal is transparency, what you can do depends on your level of
access and control of server2. If your goal is of obscurity, it may
work to a degree, but there have been some news stories lately of, for
instance, security researchers identifying the IP of people even though
they went through Tor.

So, yes, it may be possible.

MAA


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From: Alan Chandler on
On 20/05/10 14:45, export(a)hope.cz wrote:
> Let’s suppose this configuration
>
> |Server1| <----- |Server2| <----- |Client|
>
> A client sends a request that starts a script on Server2.The script (
> running on server2) from this server 2 will download a webpage from
> Server1.
> Is it possible to record Client’s IP on Server1, instead of Server2’s
> IP? In other words, Server1 will think the request for downloading is
> directly from Client.
> That is Server2’s IP will be “invisible” for Server1

As others have noted, you don't say what you are really trying to do.
Some have assumed that it's for security reasons. But if it isn't you
can always get Server2 script to add the ipaddress that called it to
some query/post parameters.

--
Alan Chandler
http://www.chandlerfamily.org.uk



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