From: GogoJF on
On Aug 7, 10:47 am, Tom Roberts <tjroberts...(a)sbcglobal.net> wrote:
> GogoJF wrote:
> > On Aug 5, 2:31 pm, Tom Roberts <tjroberts...(a)sbcglobal.net> wrote:
> >> Nature uses no observers, so valid models of physics must not use observers, or
> >> at least be independent of observer.
>
> > So, you say that all our models should be devoid of the
> > observer, in order to measure nature correctly- that we should,
> > instead, use our devices which are more precise and accurate?
>
> Hmmm. You can read what I said above. That's what I said. This is not about
> precision or accuracy, it is about faithfully modeling nature.
>
> Our models must, of course, include measuring devices, and must model the
> measurement process.
>
>         For instance, in GR to model the length that a ruler measures,
>         one integrates the metric along the spacelike path of the ruler.
>         To model the time interval displayed on a clock, one integrates
>         the metric along the clock's timelike path.
>
> > At the
> > same time, this statement disqualifies all observational measure.
>
> No. It merely points out that the observer is not part of the model.
> Measurements are included in the model.
>
> > Einstein's description of relativity routinely uses the observer in
> > the thought experiment.
>
> Sure. But you must understand what his observers did -- they applied measurement
> instruments, nothing more. So modeling those instruments is sufficient. This was
> the literary style of his day, and it persists to today, but there is no need
> for a human observer, or any other kind of observer; modeling the instruments is
> sufficient.
>
>         This is not true for the Copenhagen interpretation of quantum
>         mechanics. That IMHO is a fatal flaw.
>
> Tom Roberts

Does not the observers' apparatus "mimic" the "applied measurement
instrument"? I think there is room for clarity here. You imply that
this "literary style" that we speak of today- this Einstein thought
experiment kind-of-way of thinking is necessary in discussion but not
needed in real matters of "modeling of instruments". Cannot an
observer pick up a stop watch and become some kind of crude measuring
device?
From: harald on
On Aug 10, 8:00 pm, Da Do Ron Ron <ron_ai...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
> from Harald:
>
> >http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Walter_Kaufmann_%28physicist%29
>
> Relativistic "mass variance" does not support SR

Did you actually *see* what you wrote??
Effectively you state here that an effect predicted by the Special
theory of Relativity does not support the Special theory of
Relativity.

> because it is merely
> an observer-dependent triviality.

You base a self contradictory conclusion on your statement that "it is
merely an observer-dependent triviality".

Evidently that statement of yours is erroneous; and you already *knew*
that your statement is erroneous from my citations.

> It cannot physically exist because
> it is reciprocal (i.e., each of two passing objects cannot both be
> truly more massive than each other).

I already explained that this is the same for classical kinetic
energy.

As you would put it: Each of two passing objects cannot both have
truly more kinetic energy than each other. Therefore it cannot
physically exist.

Your conclusion *must* therefore be that kinetic energy, as "does not
support" classical mechanics.

> On the other hand, any actual or physical
> mass variance would contradict SR due to the fact that it involves
> true or absolute motion.

As you don't even see what you write yourself, it should not be
surprising that you also did not see me prove the contrary... Once
more, with a little addition:

As Einstein stated in 1907, the theory (which he would later brand
"Special relativity") is the "merger of the H. A. Lorentz Theory" (of
1895) "and the relativity principle", as developed by Lorentz in 1904
and by himself in 1905 (he omitted Poincare, but that's another
topic).

I already cited for you two other passages of that same paper:

(with a little rearrangement:)
"H. A. Lorentz's and FitzGerald's hypothesis [according to which
moving bodies experience a certain contraction in the direction of
their motion] appear [..] as a compelling consequence of [relativity]
theory."

and:

"It is by no means self-evident that the assumption made here which we
call "the principle of the constancy of the velocity of light" is
actually realized in nature, but --at least for a coordinate system in
a certain state of motion-- it is made plausible by the confirmation
through experiment of the Lorentz theory [of 1895], which is based on
the assumption of an ether that is absolutely in rest."

- http://www.soso.ch/wissen/hist/SRT/E-1907.pdf

Now explain to me how true or absolute motion can contradict Special
Relativity! (I won't bother to reply anymore if you don't).

[more of the same]

> Harald quoted:
> "If one of two synchronous clocks at A is moved in a closed curve
> with
> constant velocity until it returns to A, the journey lasting t
> seconds, then by the clock which has remained at rest the travelled
> clock on its arrival at A will be 1/2tv² second slow."
>
> The problem with this is that acceleration is involved.

That wasn't a problem for Lorentz or Einstein, nor is it for me.

> I have eliminated
> this problem with the following simple experiment:
>
>                                      clock A
> -----------------------------------<---[0]---
> ---------------------------------------[0]--->
>                                      clock B1
>
>                       clock A
> -------------------<---[4]---                       clock B2
> ------------------------------------------------------<---[4]---
> ----------------------------------------------------------[4]--->
>                                                     clock B1
>
>      clock A
> ---<---[8]---
> ---<---[10]---
>     clock B2
>
> (Ref.: clocks B1 and B2 both move at 0.6c relative to clock A)

If [8] and [10] are clock readings then you apparently made a
calculation error (in fact B2 will be retarded on A).

> The above extremely simple experiment directly proves that clocks in
> different inertial frames run at physically different rates.
> It also
> proves that people in different such frames age differently. SR has
> no explanation for these facts. SR makes no physical predictions re
> any fundamental physical phenomena.

SRT predicts many *physical phenomena*, which are what is *observed*.
Check the dictionary:

"a fact, occurrence, or circumstance observed or observable: to study
the phenomena of nature" "of or pertaining to that which is material"
- http://dictionary.reference.com

Harald