From: Tim Little on
On 2010-05-23, Rick Decker <rdecker(a)hamilton.edu> wrote:
> A more restrictive form of this question is "for every positive
> integer k, and every integer d, 0 <= d <= 9, is there a run of exactly k
> d's in the decimal expansion of pi?" I'd guess that most mathematicians
> would be agnostic on that question.

Agnostic in the technical sense of having some slight hints of doubt
perhaps, but strongly expecting the answer to be "yes". Not only
that, but expecting such runs to appear infinitely many times for each
k and d.


- Tim
From: Peter Webb on

And there are MANY irrational numbers which have a maximum run of
some particular digit. Consider, e.g. .501001000100001000001.......
This number is irrational. The digit 5 appears only once.

__________________________________

With a tiny bit more work, we can easily provide a far stronger result, that
there are an infinite number of Reals in which no digit repeats, and hence
the longest run of every digit is one.

Consider any Real - say pi or sqrt(2) - and write out its binary expansion.

Let's say it is 0.1101...

For each digit "0" substitute the digits "23". For each digit "1" substitute
the digits "45". Consider this as a base 10 expansion

So 0.1101... as binary -> 23.45452345 .... as decimal

It is easy to see that:

1. The new number only contains the digits 2,3,4,5 and the maximum run of
any of these digits is 1.
2. If the original binary number is irrational, so is the new number in base
10, and if the original binary number is rational, then so is the new number
in base 10.

(This doesn't even require the number to be irrational to create a Real with
a maximum run of a single digit being one, but that was the original
question in the context of pi being irrational)


Peter Webb

From: Transfer Principle on
On May 23, 12:44 pm, Shepherd Moon <shepherdm...(a)yahoo.com> wrote:
> On May 23, 1:36 pm, spudnik <Space...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
> > on the wayside,
> > 0.999.... does not = 1;
> > it equals 1.000...., the "real"number, one;
> > take a hop, a skip & a jump over Tony Robinson's bed
> > (of coals).
> I'm not sure I follow what you're saying. By "0.999.... does not = 1
> it equals 1.000...." are you implying that 1 <> 1.00?
> Could you explain why 0.999... = 1.000... <> 1 if that is indeed what
> you're claiming?

It appears that spudnik is making a distinction often
made by computer scientists. In many programming
languages, there are integer variables and there are
floating-point/real variables. An integer variable
can contain the value 1, but not 1.0, and vice versa
for real variables.

As it turns out, standard set theories such as ZFC
also make a similar distiction. In ZFC, naturals
such as 1 are finite ordinals. In particular, the
natural 1 equals the singleton {0}.

But what about the real 0.999...? Reals are usually
either Dedekind cuts or (equivalence classes of)
Cauchy sequences. If we consider 0.999... as a
D-cut, then it is the set of all rationals less
than 0.999... -- in particular, it contains the
rationals 0.9, 0.99, 0.999, and many others. This
set is infinite -- countably infinite, to be sure,
since Q is countable.

If we used C-sequences instead, then 0.999... is an
equivalence class of C-sequences. One such sequence
is {0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ...}. It can be shown that
there are uncountably many C-sequences in each
equivalence class.

In either case, the real 0.999... is an _infinite_
set, but the natural 1 is a _singleton_. By the
Axiom of Extensionality, an infinite set cannot
equal a singleton. Therefore 0.999... is not the
same (set) as 1.

Of course, mathematicians _identify_ the naturals
with a subset of the reals all the time, but
_identifying_ isn't the same as literal _equality_.

We can write this as a formal proof:

Theorem:
The real 0.999... does not equal the natural 1.

Proof:
Case 1. D-cuts.
The natural 1 has only one element, the empty set,
but the elements of 0.999... are rationals. In
particular, the rational 9/10, which is not equal
to the empty set, is an element of 0.999..., so
we have:

(9/10)e0.999..., yet ~(9/10)e1

Thus by Extensionality, ~(0.999...=1). QED Case 1.

Case 2. C-sequences.
The natural 1 has only one element, the empty set,
but the elements of 0.999... are C-sequences. In
particular, the C-sequence {9/10, 99/100, ...},
which is not equal to the empty set, is an element
of 0.999..., so we have:

{9/10,99/100,...}e0.999..., yet ~{9/10,99/100,...}e1

Thus by Extensionality, ~(0.999...=1). QED Case 2.

Notice that Megill's Metamath, since it is a
_computer_-based prover, must find a way to
distinguish between naturals and reals in order to
prove 0.999...=1. In particular, the natural (finite
ordinal) 1 is written as 1_o ("o" for ordinal),
while the real 1 is written as 1_R. The number 1
without a subscript actually denotes the _complex_
number 1. The Metamath proof of 0.999... = 1 indeed
proves that the _complex_ numbers are equal.

So spudnik correctly points out that in both
computer science and set theory, the real object
0.999... is not literally equal to the integer
object 1. It definitely puts a new twist on the
long-running debate about 0.999... and 1.
From: Aatu Koskensilta on
Transfer Principle <lwalke3(a)lausd.net> writes:

> So spudnik correctly points out that in both computer science and set
> theory, the real object 0.999... is not literally equal to the integer
> object 1. It definitely puts a new twist on the long-running debate
> about 0.999... and 1.

No it doesn't. The "debate" has nothing to do with the tedious technical
details you mention.

--
Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensilta(a)uta.fi)

"Wovon man nicht sprechan kann, dar�ber muss man schweigen"
- Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus
From: spudnik on
I was taking monsieur Webb to task, for saying that
*any* irrational number has a limited run of digits
in *any* integral base ... unless it might be one
that was (some how) specifically "constructed" to do that,
with no other use for it.

if you can't take the heat, get out of the frying-pan, or
reduce the size of teh bed of coals to traverse.

the problem of "0.999.... not equal to one" is,
almost always, stated by the math-newbie in those terms;
whereas, what is really meant, is if there is a non-infinitessimal
difference
between the two real numbers, cf. 1.000.... (and,
this was all covered in Simon Stevin's booklet,
_The Decimals_, way back in when ever .-)

after that, comes the wonderful world of p-adics!

thusNso:
what consistency or species of feces would you like?

I clikced on your webpage with the shrine to Hope or Athens,
and your "Prime Gaps" page seems to be nothing, but
a crude attempt at the sieve of Eristosthenes;
congradulations -- you get every turd of that,
tossed playfully back at you!

are you literate in any language?
(this is a big problem on the web, folks .-)

> thus:
> well, that is where the problem with assigning a particle
> to a wave, a la de Broglie et al, comes. the assumption,
> that causes folks to say "particle," is that because a quantum
> of light is absorbed by one atom of siver dioxide (say,
> in the photographic emulsion; or, other detector) --some how--
> that it must be that a rock of light hit the electronic orbital
> (although
> this is never specified, as to how it could be, and the whole problem
> of EM is also hard to describe, and variously is).
>
> this is really all of a confusion from Newton's "geometrical optics,"
> that is, the "ray" of light, which is just one "normal"
> to the wave (or Huyghens wavelet).

> thus:
> about your five "cloture" events, the real problem is that
> "the Fed" was never properly ratified (and is unconstitutional
> for that reason, if not directly; it is modeled
> upon the Federal Reserve System
> of England). of coursel the 527 cmtes. have essentially taken
> over the TV advertizing on all national issues & candidates,
> through an Act that was passed unaanimously in both houses.
> > "Senate rules don't trump the Constitution" --http://GreaterVoice.org/60
>
> thus:
> I've been saying, for a while, that if "green" gasoline can
> be made, and gasoline fuel cells, what is the problem
> with Fossilized Fuels (TM), which ain't fossilized? ... anyway,
> see "Green Freedom" in the article,
> which is not quite what I was refering to!


thusNso:
Young's two-pinhole experiment was the thing
that killed the corpuscle o'light, so that
anomalous & highly particular (sik) set-ups
with giant molecules are only of pecuniary interest ... er,
what ever "pecuniary" means, you have to actually look
at the "particulars" of the write-up with the fullerenes,
to be able to say any thing of interest -- to make a hypothesis,
beyond regurgtiating their delciious resultage.

see, you did not even bother to deal with the whole idea
of duality, that Pascal essntially created
in projective geometry (cf., "two-column proofs" .-)

another way to "check" your theory -- iff it is one --
would be to explain Snell's law, electromagnetically and/or
with aether ... even if it is an "undefined element" of your axioms.

> The 'particle' associated with the photon wave enters and exits a
> single slit. The 'particle' occupies a very small region of the wave.

thusNso:
yeah, but you don't need the particle, at all;
your theory says nothing, at all, either, at least
til you attempt to make it do some thing.

one way to "check" it, would be to explain permitivity & permeability
with the theory, if it is a theory & not just typing & macro-ing
practice.

> The associated wave exits the both slits and creates interference
> which alters the direction the particle travels.

thusNso:
being legally enjoined from using the googolplex, what's YUV?

thusNso:
complainant: there's a series of his books from Cambridge U. Press,
paperback, very nice, but they want $45 for the one
that I was peruzing at the bookstore! (I think,
I'd bought one of these, before, for about $25, although
I lost it.)
the titles of these seem generally to be a list
of three subjects, _This, That and Another Thing_, although
also the usual format of several independent essays/chapters.
r.i.p., MG.

--Pi, the surfer's canonical value -- accept no other!
http://wlym.com