From: |-|ercules on
This is proof of higher infinities!

Take any list of real numbers digit expansions

123
456
789

DIAG = 159
ANTI-DIAG = 260

EVERYONE in sci.math thinks it's a NEW (NON COMPUTABLE EVEN!) digit sequence!

EVERY digit sequence is computable up to ALL finite initial substrings.

This means EVERY digit sequence is computable to EVERY (INFINITE AMOUNT OF) initial substrings.

NOBODY ON SCI.MATH GETS IT!

They think, to quote George Greene...

> OF COURSE you can't find it (a new digit sequence) "at any position".
> It is INFINITELY long and the differences occur at INFINITELY MANY
> DIFFERENT positions!


Funny thing is, nobody can paraphrase what George is talking about here!

0.xxxxxxxxxxxxx3xxxxxxxxxx5xxxxxxxxxxxxx9xxxxxxxxxxx6xxxxxxxxx...

Apparently 3xxxxxxxxxx5 is not on the computable reals list!


Herc
--
the nonexistence of a box that contains the numbers of all the boxes
that don't contain their own box number implies higher infinities.
- Cantor's Proof (the holy grail of paradise in mathematics)
From: Daryl McCullough on
|-|ercules says...

>> OF COURSE you can't find it (a new digit sequence) "at any position".
>> It is INFINITELY long and the differences occur at INFINITELY MANY
>> DIFFERENT positions!
>
>
>Funny thing is, nobody can paraphrase what George is talking about here!

Don't say "nobody can" when the truth is that everyone can, except you.

What George said was perfectly clear to anyone who is at all competent
at mathematics. It was not clear to you, however.

If r_0, r_1, ..., is the list of all computable reals, and d is its
antidiagonal, then what George is saying is this:

For each natural number n, r_n differs from d in infinitely many
decimal places.

What does it mean to say that they differ in infinitely many
decimal places? It means that there is no *last* decimal place
in which they differ. So for example:

0.12343333....

and

0.33333333...

differ only in decimal places 1, 2, and 4. So decimal place number
4 is the last decimal place in which they differ. In contrast, let's
compare:

0.12121212....

and
0.13131313....

These two reals differ in decimal place 2, 4, 6, etc. There is no
last decimal place in which they differ.

--
Daryl McCullough
Ithaca, NY

From: Daryl McCullough on
|-|ercules says...

>EVERY digit sequence is computable up to ALL finite initial substrings.

Let r_0, r_1, ... be the list of all computable reals. Let d be the
antidiagonal. Then you are confusing two different statements:

1. Forall d' such that d' is a finite approximations to d,
there exists a real r_n on the list such that d' agrees with r_n
to the number of decimal places in d'.

2. There exists a real r_n on the list such that
forall d' such that d' is a finite approximations to d,
d' agrees with r_n to the number of decimal places in d'

The first sentence is true. The second sentence is false.
The first sentence has nothing to do with Cantor's theorem.
The second sentence is provably false by Cantor's theorem.

You keep bringing up the first sentence, which has *nothing* to
do with Cantor's theorem. It has nothing to do with the question
of whether there are uncountably many reals.

--
Daryl McCullough
Ithaca, NY

From: Mike Terry on
"|-|ercules" <radgray123(a)yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:87jbo4Fe5iU1(a)mid.individual.net...
> This is proof of higher infinities!
>
> Take any list of real numbers digit expansions
>
> 123
> 456
> 789
>
> DIAG = 159
> ANTI-DIAG = 260
>
> EVERYONE in sci.math thinks it's a NEW (NON COMPUTABLE EVEN!) digit
sequence!

Not quite everyone - there's one guy who's confused... :-)

Anyway, I've worked out where you're going wrong below: you don't
understand quantifiers properly, in particular that "seemingly minor"
changes to the quantifiers can completely alter the meaning of a statement!
See comments below...

>
> EVERY digit sequence is computable up to ALL finite initial substrings.
>

Yes

> This means EVERY digit sequence is computable to EVERY (INFINITE AMOUNT
OF) initial substrings.

Yes, yes. Initial finite substrings of course (of which there are
infinitely many).

OK, let me state this more formally with quantifiers. (If you used
quantifiers like I'm about to in all your posts, you'd avoid confusing
yourself, as you'd see instantly what you were doing wrong, so I recommend
you do this from now on!)

// What we all agree:
For all infinite digit sequence D:
For all n in N:
// there is a TM can compute the digit sequence
// as far as position n:
There exists a TM, TM_n:
For all k<=n:
TM_n(k) = D(k)

Note that while the above is correct, this is just saying that corresponding
to any D there is a sequence of TMs (TM_n) where TM_n computes D to n
positions. It could be the case that all the TM_n are different, no? We
HAVE NOT shown that there is a *single* TM, TM_ALL_D that works for all n
similtaneously. I.e. which satisfies the following:

// (WRONG:)
For all infinite digit sequence D:
// (a TM can compute the digit sequence for all n:)
// (which is to say, the sequence D is "computable")
There exists a TM, TM_ALL_D:
For all k in N:
TM_ALL_D(k) = D(k)

Can you see that the two quantified statements are not the same? (Look at
them carefully! :-)

The first is saying that any D is computable to any finite length, and is
correct.

The second is saying that any D is computable, and is incorrect. That it is
incorrect requires proof, and is maybe not obvious. However, the point is
that you are claiming that the second statement is the same as the first -
but it is not, as is apparent when they are written out accurately.

If you think the second statement *follows* from the first somehow, then
present a proof of this. (Just repeating it over and over does not
constitute a proof.)

>
> NOBODY ON SCI.MATH GETS IT!

Everyone gets it but you...

>
> They think, to quote George Greene...
>
> > OF COURSE you can't find it (a new digit sequence) "at any position".
> > It is INFINITELY long and the differences occur at INFINITELY MANY
> > DIFFERENT positions!
>
>
> Funny thing is, nobody can paraphrase what George is talking about here!
>

Eh? You mean *you* can't paraphrase it. See my paraphrasing above.


> 0.xxxxxxxxxxxxx3xxxxxxxxxx5xxxxxxxxxxxxx9xxxxxxxxxxx6xxxxxxxxx...
>
> Apparently 3xxxxxxxxxx5 is not on the computable reals list!

Apparently to whom? (Not to George or anyone other than you...) Just goes
to show it's just you who doesn't get it.


Regards,
Mike.



From: Colin on
On Jun 13, 1:21 am, "|-|ercules" <radgray...(a)yahoo.com> wrote:
> This is proof of higher infinities!
>
> Take any list of real numbers digit expansions
>
> 123
> 456
> 789
>
> DIAG = 159
> ANTI-DIAG = 260
>
> EVERYONE in sci.math thinks it's a NEW (NON COMPUTABLE EVEN!) digit sequence!
>
> EVERY digit sequence is computable up to ALL finite initial substrings.
>
> This means EVERY digit sequence is computable to EVERY (INFINITE AMOUNT OF) initial substrings.
>

No, this is where you've gone off the rails. If you have an infinite
sequence of digits, then, yes, every finite subsequence is computable,
i.e., there's a recursive function that will enumerate such a finite
subsequence. It does NOT follow that the entire infinite sequence will
be computable, i.e., there is NOT a recursive function that will
enumerate the entire sequence. Just because every finite subset of a
set is recursive doesn't mean the original set is recursive.