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From: adamk on 17 Jun 2010 20:10
> Let P equal a set of integers and let NP be any
> number greater than 1
> including 1.

(Yawn)

Then P equals NP because the integers
> and each subset of
> integers equals numbers greater than 1

(gag)
and including
> 1. Q.E.D. Why am
> I right? Why am I not wrong?

Because you are a sorry fuckwit.
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