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From: Simplane Simple Plane Simulate Plain Simple on 17 Jun 2010 05:00
Let P equal a set of integers and let NP be any number greater than 1
including 1. Then P equals NP because the integers and each subset of
integers equals numbers greater than 1 and including 1. Q.E.D. Why am
I right? Why am I not wrong?
From: Ostap Bender on 18 Jun 2010 03:48
On Jun 17, 2:00 am, Simplane Simple Plane Simulate Plain Simple
<marty.musa...(a)gmail.com> wrote:
> Let P equal a set of integers and let NP be any number greater than 1
> including 1. Then P equals NP because the integers and each subset of
> integers equals numbers greater than 1 and including 1. Q.E.D. Why am
> I right? Why am I not wrong?

How many times do I need to repeat my own definitive solution:

P = NP iff P = 0 or N = 1

True for any field

Case closed

Next on the agenda:

(2B) OR ~(2B) - that is the question
From: porky_pig_jr on 18 Jun 2010 15:21
On Jun 18, 3:48 am, Ostap Bender <ostap_bender_1...(a)hotmail.com>
wrote:

> Next on the agenda:
>
> (2B) OR ~(2B)  - that is the question

True.
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