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From: bacle on 15 Jul 2010 19:35
Hi:
I am trying to find a good answer to one of my students
questions: why, if f is a function of _one_ complex
variable, can we meaningfully talk about partial derivatives.?. Partial derivatives make sense (at least
in the real case) when we have more than one variable,
e.g., f(x_1,..,x_n). But, if we have just a single complex variable, it seems to make no sense to have partial
derivatives. Any Ideas.?

Thanks.
From: rancid moth on 16 Jul 2010 00:24
[cut]

"why, if f is a function of _one_ complex
variable, can we meaningfully talk about partial derivatives.?"

because z=x+iy : x, y being independent variables.




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