From: Jason on
> > However, since both n and s tend to infinity, the limit is taken
> > once over the entire sum. With n and s coinciding, we get
> > gabriel's proof.
> >
> > This seems to work but is this last step legal?

> _What_ last step?

David,

The last step being that since n coincides with s and the limits are
both taken over infinity, the inner limit falls away to be replaced by
the outer limit.

What do you think?

Jason

From: Jason on
Denis,

The original post included everything. It then became unmanageable as
cyber thugs kept posting garbage to the thread.

You can find the details at: http://www.geocities.com/john_gabriel

In response to your assumptions about someone trying to discredit
newton, cauchy and all the others: I don't see how you can say this,
because even gabriel acknowledges newton's work. The above result is
not something you can prove using riemann sums. Please be kind enough
to prove the result in full using riemann sums as you claimso that we
can all see.
Have never seen gabriel's theorem stated before, nor a connection
between f(x+w)-f(x) and the integral in the way gabriel
shows it. If I can prove it, then I intend to use it as a teaching aid
because it requires nothing else, i.e. no knowledge of
real analysis or deep properties of the real number system.

Jason

From: Jason on
Which is quite correct. I believe this agrees with the classic
definition. f'(0) is undefined for f(x) =abs(x)

From: denis feldmann on
Jason a ýcrit :
> Denis,
>
> The original post included everything. It then became unmanageable as
> cyber thugs kept posting garbage to the thread.
>
> You can find the details at: http://www.geocities.com/john_gabriel
>
> In response to your assumptions about someone trying to discredit
> newton, cauchy and all the others: I don't see how you can say this,
> because even gabriel acknowledges newton's work.

By saying poor Newton was obliged to illegal contorsions and
infinitesimals, as he could not see the truth...



The above result is
> not something you can prove using riemann sums. Please be kind enough
> to prove the result in full using riemann sums as you claimso that we
> can all see.


For the intervall [x,x+w], the fonction t->f'(t) is Riemann
integrable,the associated Riemann sum is w/n sum(f'(x+kw/n),k=0..n-1)),
with limit (n->+oo) = integral (f'(t), t=x..x+w) = f(x+w)-f(x).

Done.

As this is really trivial , I conclude you are a troll. Please be
kind enough to prove otherwise.



> Have never seen gabriel's theorem stated before, nor a connection
> between f(x+w)-f(x) and the integral in the way gabriel
> shows it. If I can prove it, then I intend to use it as a teaching aid
> because it requires nothing else, i.e. no knowledge of
> real analysis or deep properties of the real number system.

Ha! How do you prove it *without * any definition of anything, like
derivatie or Riemannsum?


>
> Jason
>
From: David C. Ullrich on
On 2 Mar 2005 07:15:30 -0800, "Jason" <logamath(a)yahoo.com> wrote:

>> > However, since both n and s tend to infinity, the limit is taken
>> > once over the entire sum. With n and s coinciding, we get
>> > gabriel's proof.
>> >
>> > This seems to work but is this last step legal?
>
>> _What_ last step?
>
>David,
>
>The last step being that since n coincides with s and the limits are
>both taken over infinity, the inner limit falls away to be replaced by
>the outer limit.
>
>What do you think?

I think two things:

First, I think that you think I know what you're talking
about. There are no inner and outer limits in any of the
posts in this thread, nor any sums visible - if you think
people are going to try to make sense of your corrections
to the incoherent things we can find elsewhere you're wrong -
you should post the entire proof in a coherent form.

Also, I _know_ that in general interchanging limits is
the hard part when you're proving almost anything in
analysis - if you just assume that that works you're
usually sweeping the entire proof under the rug.

>Jason


************************

David C. Ullrich
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