From: Kaba on
Hi,

Let R be the set of reals and Q be the set of rationals. Given
x in R^n\{0}, is it always possible to find t in R, t > 0, such that
x in Q^n?

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http://kaba.hilvi.org
From: James Waldby on
On Tue, 06 Jul 2010 21:38:28 +0300, Kaba wrote:

> Let R be the set of reals and Q be the set of rationals. Given x in
> R^n\{0}, is it always possible to find t in R, t > 0, such that x in
> Q^n?

You don't specify any relation between t and x, and apparently
are using x in different ways in its two instances.

Are you asking if every line in the plane, every plane in 3-space,
etc. has non-zero points with all-rational coordinates? If that's
the question, y = pi * x is a refutation.

--
jiw
From: Kaba on
James Waldby wrote:
> On Tue, 06 Jul 2010 21:38:28 +0300, Kaba wrote:
>
> > Let R be the set of reals and Q be the set of rationals. Given x in
> > R^n\{0}, is it always possible to find t in R, t > 0, such that x in
> > Q^n?
>
> You don't specify any relation between t and x, and apparently
> are using x in different ways in its two instances.

Oops, I meant:

Given x in R^n\{0}, is it always possible to find t in R, t > 0, such
that tx in Q^n?

> Are you asking if every line in the plane, every plane in 3-space,
> etc. has non-zero points with all-rational coordinates? If that's
> the question, y = pi * x is a refutation.

That's the question, although just for a line. That's a good counter-
example. It's interesting that there are lines that avoid all-rational
points.

--
http://kaba.hilvi.org
From: Axel Vogt on
Kaba wrote:
> James Waldby wrote:
>> On Tue, 06 Jul 2010 21:38:28 +0300, Kaba wrote:
>>
>>> Let R be the set of reals and Q be the set of rationals. Given x in
>>> R^n\{0}, is it always possible to find t in R, t > 0, such that x in
>>> Q^n?
>> You don't specify any relation between t and x, and apparently
>> are using x in different ways in its two instances.
>
> Oops, I meant:
>
> Given x in R^n\{0}, is it always possible to find t in R, t > 0, such
> that tx in Q^n?
>
>> Are you asking if every line in the plane, every plane in 3-space,
>> etc. has non-zero points with all-rational coordinates? If that's
>> the question, y = pi * x is a refutation.
>
> That's the question, although just for a line. That's a good counter-
> example. It's interesting that there are lines that avoid all-rational
> points.
>

n=1 ---> t:= 1/abs(x).
From: Kaba on
Axel Vogt wrote:
> Kaba wrote:
> > James Waldby wrote:
> >> On Tue, 06 Jul 2010 21:38:28 +0300, Kaba wrote:
> >>
> >>> Let R be the set of reals and Q be the set of rationals. Given x in
> >>> R^n\{0}, is it always possible to find t in R, t > 0, such that x in
> >>> Q^n?
> >> You don't specify any relation between t and x, and apparently
> >> are using x in different ways in its two instances.
> >
> > Oops, I meant:
> >
> > Given x in R^n\{0}, is it always possible to find t in R, t > 0, such
> > that tx in Q^n?
> >
> >> Are you asking if every line in the plane, every plane in 3-space,
> >> etc. has non-zero points with all-rational coordinates? If that's
> >> the question, y = pi * x is a refutation.
> >
> > That's the question, although just for a line. That's a good counter-
> > example. It's interesting that there are lines that avoid all-rational
> > points.
> >
>
> n=1 ---> t:= 1/abs(x).

Sure:)

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