From: Lester Zick on
On Fri, 30 Mar 2007 12:24:12 -0500, Tony Orlow <tony(a)lightlink.com>
wrote:

>Lester Zick wrote:
>> On Thu, 29 Mar 2007 09:37:21 -0500, Tony Orlow <tony(a)lightlink.com>
>> wrote:
>>
>>>>> Add 1 n
>>>>> times to 0 and you get n. If n is infinite, then n is infinite.
>>>> This is reasoning per say instead of per se.
>>>>
>>> Pro se, even. If the first natural is 1, then the nth is n, and if there
>>> are n of them, there's an nth, and it's a member of the set. Just ask
>>> Mueckenheim.
>>
>> Pro se means for yourself and not for itself.
>
>In my own behalf, yes.
>
>>I don't have much to do
>> with Mueckenheim because he seems more interested in special pleading
>> than universal truth. At least his assumptions of truth don't seem
>> especially better or worse than any other assumptions of truth.
>>
>> ~v~~
>
>He has some valid points about the condition of the patient, but of
>course he and I have different remedies.

Some of which may prove deadly.

~v~~
From: Lester Zick on
On Fri, 30 Mar 2007 12:22:53 -0600, Virgil <virgil(a)comcast.net> wrote:

>In article <460d4813(a)news2.lightlink.com>,
> Tony Orlow <tony(a)lightlink.com> wrote:
>
>
>> An actually infinite sequence is one where there exist two elements, one
>> of which is an infinite number of elements beyond the other.
>
>Not in any standard mathematics.
>
>In standard mathematics, an infinite sequence is o more than a function
>whose domain is the set of naturals, no two of which are more that
>finitely different. The codmain of such a function need not have any
>particular structure at all.

Oh that really clears it all up.

~v~~
From: Lester Zick on
On 31 Mar 2007 07:07:38 -0700, "Brian Chandler"
<imaginatorium(a)despammed.com> wrote:

>
>Tony Orlow wrote:
>> stephen(a)nomail.com wrote:
>> > In sci.math Virgil <virgil(a)comcast.net> wrote:
>> >> In article <460d4813(a)news2.lightlink.com>,
>> >> Tony Orlow <tony(a)lightlink.com> wrote:
>> >
>> >
>> >>> An actually infinite sequence is one where there exist two elements, one
>> >>> of which is an infinite number of elements beyond the other.
>> >>
>> >> Not in any standard mathematics.
>> >
>> > It is not even true in Tony's mathematics, at least it was not true
>> > the last time he brought it up. According to this
>> > definition {1, 2, 3, ... } is not actually infinite, but
>> > {1, 2, 3, ..., w} is actually infinite. However, the last time this
>> > was pointed out, Tony claimed that {1, 2, 3, ..., w} was not
>> > actually infinite.
>> >
>> > Stephen
>>
>> No, adding one extra element to a countable set doesn't make it
>> uncountable. If all other elements in the sequence are a finite number
>> of steps from the start, and w occurs directly after those, then it is
>> one step beyond *some step* which is finite, and so is at a finite step.
>
>Perhaps you might care, Tony, to list some properties of this "some
>step" you have referred to above? I tell you what, I'll give you a
>start - let's call this 'step' (actually this is the wrong word, since
>step is normally the gap between two adjacent elements**, so let's
>call this element) Q.
>
>** I'm sure you understand that being described as more logically
>coherent (orwhateveritwas) than Lester Zick is rather like being
>called more caring than Jack the Ripper,

Or like arguing virtue between mathematikers and whores.

> but I take the sentiment to
>mean that you will probably agree with this nitpick about 'step'
>terminology.
>
>So:
>
>Q has the property of being the last element in an endless sequence
>Q has the property of nonexistence, actually
>
>Now it's your turn.
>
>
>
>> Try (...000, ..001, ...010, ......, ...101, ...110, ...111)
>
>Why? What is it, anyway?
>
>Brian Chandler
>http://imaginatorium.org

~v~~
From: Virgil on
In article <460e8432(a)news2.lightlink.com>,
Tony Orlow <tony(a)lightlink.com> wrote:

> stephen(a)nomail.com wrote:

> > So you think there are only a finite number of elements between 1 and
> > w? What is that finite number? 100? 100000? 100000000000000000?
> > 98042934810235712394872394712349123749123471923479? Which one?
> >
>
> Aleph_0, which is provably a member of the set, if it's the size of the
> set.

Of which set is TO claiming aleph_0 is "provably a member"?
If it is the set of naturals, TO has not proved it and others have
disproved it, so this is one of the occasions on which TO is wrong!.


> > As I said, even you do not accept your own definition of "actually
> > infinite".
> >
> > Stephen
> >
>
> If you paid attention, the apparent contradiction would evaporate. The
> number of elements up to and including any finite element of N is
> finite, and equal to that element in magnitude. If the number is n, then
> there's an nth, and its value is n. As Ross like to say, NeN. We are not
> alone. :D

Anything Ross says should be taken with a grain of salt the size of the
Empire State Building.

In particular, what set theory is Ross claiming allows any set to be a
member of itself?
From: Lester Zick on
On 31 Mar 2007 10:02:17 -0700, "Brian Chandler"
<imaginatorium(a)despammed.com> wrote:

>Tony Orlow wrote:
>> Brian Chandler wrote:
>> > Tony Orlow wrote:
>>
>> Hi Imaginatorium -
>
>That's not my name - for some reason Google has consented to writing
>my name again. The Imaginatorium is my place of (self-)employment,

And here I just assumed it was your place of self confinement.

> so
>I am the Chief Imaginator, but you may call me Brian.

Arguing imagination among mathematikers is like arguing virtue among
whores.

~v~~