From: Tony Orlow on
Hi All -

Looking at some of Herc's recent threads about Cantor's diagonal proof
of the uncountability of the reals, a question occurs to me which I
actually don't know how a subscriber to transfinite set theory would
answer. I'm curious.

In Cantor's list of reals, for every digit added, the list doubles in
length. In order to follow his logic, we need not consider any real
numbers which are not rational. In any such list of rationals, it is
always true that we can concoct another rational which is not on the
list. Irrational numbers need not even be considered. So, are the
rationals not to be considered uncountable, by Cantor's own logic?

BTW, I understand that the rationals are considered countable because
of a rather artificial bijection with N, but if Cantor's argument
really has anything to do with the reals, as opposed to the powerset
(which is what it's really all about), then why is it entirely
unnecessary to even consider irrational reals in his construction?

Thanks and Smiles,

Tony
From: Virgil on
In article
<b65b2a33-7335-410a-8da7-91026e63755e(a)q13g2000vbm.googlegroups.com>,
Tony Orlow <tony(a)lightlink.com> wrote:

> Hi All -
>
> Looking at some of Herc's recent threads about Cantor's diagonal proof
> of the uncountability of the reals, a question occurs to me which I
> actually don't know how a subscriber to transfinite set theory would
> answer. I'm curious.
>
> In Cantor's list of reals, for every digit added, the list doubles in
> length. In order to follow his logic, we need not consider any real
> numbers which are not rational. In any such list of rationals, it is
> always true that we can concoct another rational which is not on the
> list. Irrational numbers need not even be considered. So, are the
> rationals not to be considered uncountable, by Cantor's own logic?
>
> BTW, I understand that the rationals are considered countable because
> of a rather artificial bijection with N

Countability of any set is established by ANY bijection with N, no
matter how "artificial" it may seem to Tony Orlow, or anyone else.

> but if Cantor's argument
> really has anything to do with the reals, as opposed to the powerset
> (which is what it's really all about), then why is it entirely
> unnecessary to even consider irrational reals in his construction?

Since Cantor has provided at least two proofs based on two entirely
different lines of argument, TO should make clear what proof he is
talking about, particularly as both proofs require consideration of
irrationals so that TO's comment is nonsense with respect to either.
From: Brian Chandler on
Tony Orlow wrote:
> Hi All -

Hello Tony!

> Looking at some of Herc's recent threads about Cantor's diagonal proof
> of the uncountability of the reals, a question occurs to me which I
> actually don't know how a subscriber to transfinite set theory would
> answer. I'm curious.

There are no "subscribers" to set theory (unless this has something
curious to do with using a "full-price" newsreader), only those who
understand it (as distinct from those who don't, of course).


> In Cantor's list of reals, for every digit added, the list doubles in
> length.

It does? Reference please to a textbooks talking about "Cantor's list
of reals", with digits being progressively added. (For extra marks,
you could just explain why you think there's a relation between
"adding a digit" and doubling the number of somethings. This sounds
much more to me like a list of terminating binary fractions of length
not more than n, for some n -- not related in any obvious way to a
"list of reals".)

Brian Chandler


From: Mike Terry on
"Tony Orlow" <tony(a)lightlink.com> wrote in message
news:b65b2a33-7335-410a-8da7-91026e63755e(a)q13g2000vbm.googlegroups.com...
> Hi All -
>
> Looking at some of Herc's recent threads about Cantor's diagonal proof
> of the uncountability of the reals, a question occurs to me which I
> actually don't know how a subscriber to transfinite set theory would
> answer. I'm curious.
>
> In Cantor's list of reals, for every digit added, the list doubles in
> length. In order to follow his logic, we need not consider any real
> numbers which are not rational. In any such list of rationals, it is
> always true that we can concoct another rational which is not on the
> list. Irrational numbers need not even be considered. So, are the
> rationals not to be considered uncountable, by Cantor's own logic?

I don't understand the "list doubles in length" bit. However, I think maybe
I can see what you're trying to do. You want to:
1) treat rationals as real numbers, with a decimal expansion
2) given a listing of all the rational numbers, apply Cantor's
argument regarding the anti-diagonal to construct a new number
not on the list
3) conclude that this means that the rationals would not be countable?

Is this what you're doing? If so, don't bother explaining about the list
doubling stuff, as it doesn't matter - there's an easy explanation for your
problem! The explanation is that steps (1) and (2) are fine. However the
"antidiagonal number" generated in (2) will not be a rational number, so the
conclusion (3) breaks down. Note the difference with Reals instead of
Rationals: when applied to Reals, the antidiagonal number is a *Real* number
not in the list...

Regards,
Mike.

>
> BTW, I understand that the rationals are considered countable because
> of a rather artificial bijection with N, but if Cantor's argument
> really has anything to do with the reals, as opposed to the powerset
> (which is what it's really all about), then why is it entirely
> unnecessary to even consider irrational reals in his construction?
>
> Thanks and Smiles,
>
> Tony


From: christian.bau on
On Jun 2, 7:56 pm, Tony Orlow <t...(a)lightlink.com> wrote:

> BTW, I understand that the rationals are considered countable because
> of a rather artificial bijection with N, but if Cantor's argument
> really has anything to do with the reals, as opposed to the powerset
> (which is what it's really all about), then why is it entirely
> unnecessary to even consider irrational reals in his construction?

You call this a "rather artificial bijection", but here is what being
"countable" really means: A set is countable if you can choose a first
element, a second element, a third element, and so on, in such a way
that every single element will be chosen eventually. In other words,
you can systematically count through all the elements.

So what is "artificial" about the bijection between rationals and
natural numbers? If you tried to count the integers (positive and
negative) by starting 1, 2, 3, 4 and so on and then follow with the
negative numbers and zero last, then obviously we will _not_ manage to
eventually reach every integer, because we never finish with the
positive ones. But that is just because we took a stupid ordering: If
you count 0, +1, -1, +2, -2, +3, -3, +4, -4 and so on, then _every_
integer will turn up eventually. Same with the rationals. Start with
zero. Then all fractions where numerator + denominator = 2, followed
by the negative ones, then those where numerator + denominator = 3,
the negatives, and so on. There is nothing "artificial" about this,
just a straightforward way to achieve what you want. And every
fraction will eventually turn up.

Cantor's argument breaks down for rational numbers: Assume we have a
list of all rational numbers. Now we create a rational number that is
not on the list by taking the first decimal of the first number on the
list and adding 1, the second decimal of the second number on the list
and adding one, then the third decimal of the third number adding one
and so on. The resulting number is not in the list. So where does the
argument break down? Very simple: The resulting number is not
rational.
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