From: Ray Vickson on 16 Jul 2010 17:06 On Jul 16, 12:06 am, Mike Harrison <mjh...(a)yahoo.co.uk> wrote: > On Jul 16, 7:08 am, "porky_pig...(a)my-deja.com" <porky_pig...(a)my- > > deja.com> wrote: > > Now. to win exactly 3 out of 8 times means 3 wins and 5 losses, > > probability of that is > > (p^3) (q^5) = (0.008^3)(0.992^5). This 3 out of 5 wins can happen in > > 8C3 ("8 choose 3") ways. > > You can look up the formula. 8C3 = (8!) / (3! (8-3)!). So you have to > > multiply by 8C3 and so the answer is > > (8C3) (0.008^3) (0.992^5). > > Thanks. So I make that 2.754e-5 or 1-in-36306, is that right? > > And the calculation for at least 3 out of 8 is: > > (8C3) (0.008^3) (0.992^5) + > (8C4) (0.008^4) (0.992^4) + > (8C5) (0.008^5) (0.992^3) + > (8C6) (0.008^6) (0.992^2) + > (8C7) (0.008^7) (0.992^1) + > (8C8) (0.008^8) (0.992^0) > > = 2.782e-5 or 1-in-35942. > > Which seems hardly any more likely than the 3 out of 8 on its own. I > suppose that's because the chances of getting more than 3 quickly > become extremely small. > > I hope I've calculated it right anyway. Here is the computation in Maple 9.5: n:=8; p:=1.0/125; n := 8 p := 0.008000000000 for k from 0 to n do P[k]:=binomial(n,k)*p^k*(1-p)^(n-k): end do: Here is the formatted output: k Pr{k} 0 9.377636e-01 1 6.050088e-02 2 1.707686e-03 3 2.754332e-05 4 2.776545e-07 5 1.791319e-09 6 7.223061e-12 7 1.664300e-14 8 1.677722e-17 Pr(>=3) = sum(P[k],k=3..8) = 2.782277689e-03; as you say, this is not much larger than P{=3} because the other terms P[k] for k from 4 to 8 are small. R.G. Vickson |