From: Carsten Schultz on
Am 05.04.10 05:20, schrieb Bacle:
> Hi, everyone:
> Let X,Y be topological spaces, f:X-->Y a cont. map.
>
> I am having trouble seeing that if X is contractible, then for any Y , f is nullhomotopic. The opposite direction, i.e., g:X-->Y, with Y contractible is clear,
> but not this direction.
>
>
> Anyway, this seems like a counterexample:
>
> f(t):I-->S^1 ; f(t)=e^i*2*Pi*t
>
> I imagine part of the issue is that we allow free homotopies. But even using free homotopies, it seems difficult: we must tear the path f(t) open before deforming it to a point, and I don't see how we can
> tear (the image of) f(t) open in a continuous way.

X is contractible iff id_X is homotopic to a constant map, say c. Then
f = f.id_X is homotopic to f.c, which is constant. If you work out the
details, you will also be able to write down an explicit homotopy from
your example map to a constant map.


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Carsten Schultz (2:38, 33:47)
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