From: lc on 4 Aug 2010 10:25 Is it possible to express the inversion of an incomplete elliptic integral of second kind by means of Jacobi elliptic functions (or Jacobi theta functions)? thanks
From: David W. Cantrell on 6 Aug 2010 21:33 lc <none(a)nowhe.re> wrote: > Is it possible to express the inversion of an incomplete elliptic > integral of second kind by means of Jacobi elliptic functions (or Jacobi > theta functions)? I would be interested in an answer to your question also. But in lieu of a definitive answer, you might be interested in my response in a previous thread, "Inverting elliptic integrals", at <http://groups.google.com/group/sci.math.research/msg/0942e7ec17fe39b7>. In particular, if you look at my "liitle [sic] experiment", you'll see why one might suspect that the answer to your question is "No". Best regards, David W. Cantrell
|
Pages: 1 Prev: easy probability question Next: "Fermat's Last Theorem" Disproved? Why not to proof it anyway! |