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From: Disc Magnet on 4 May 2010 17:47
Is it true that m divides the binomial coefficient C(mn, n)?

I couldn't find a counterexample, neither could I prove it. Any help?
From: Butch Malahide on 4 May 2010 18:33
On May 4, 4:47 pm, Disc Magnet <discmag...(a)gmail.com> wrote:
> Is it true that m divides the binomial coefficient C(mn, n)?
>
> I couldn't find a counterexample, [. . .]

How hard did you look? Did you try m = n = 3?
From: Ray Koopman on 4 May 2010 18:54
On May 4, 2:47 pm, Disc Magnet <discmag...(a)gmail.com> wrote:
> Is it true that m divides the binomial coefficient C(mn, n)?
>
> I couldn't find a counterexample, neither could I prove it. Any help?

Think about n = 1.
From: Ray Koopman on 4 May 2010 18:55
On May 4, 3:54 pm, Ray Koopman <koop...(a)sfu.ca> wrote:
> On May 4, 2:47 pm, Disc Magnet <discmag...(a)gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > Is it true that m divides the binomial coefficient C(mn, n)?
>
> > I couldn't find a counterexample, neither could I prove it. Any help?
>
> Think about n = 1.

Cancel that. I misread the problem.
From: Henry on 4 May 2010 20:03
On 4 May, 22:47, Disc Magnet <discmag...(a)gmail.com> wrote:
> Is it true that m divides the binomial coefficient C(mn, n)?
>
> I couldn't find a counterexample, neither could I prove it. Any help?

Yes it is true for m,n>0, since C(mn , n) / m = C(mn-1 , n-1)
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