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From: z.b. on 28 Jul 2010 21:29 added sci.math for followups On Sat, 24 Jul 2010 00:23:51 -0400, Jon wrote: > Can anyone tell me why this works? > > http://jons-math.bravehost.com/eandpi.html > > I deduced it qualitatively. How can you prove it? No one can prove it, it's false. Although your e * (2041141/1100)^(1/52) expression is close to pi, being too large by about 1.4*10^-11, it definitely isn't equal. The reason your expression is fairly close to pi is that 2041141/1100 is the 10th convergent of the continued-fraction form of (pi/e)^52. -- z.b.
From: JosephKK on 30 Jul 2010 00:31
On Thu, 29 Jul 2010 01:29:41 +0000 (UTC), "z.b." <z.b.nospam.3(a)drdaqr.com> wrote: >added sci.math for followups > >On Sat, 24 Jul 2010 00:23:51 -0400, Jon wrote: > >> Can anyone tell me why this works? >> >> http://jons-math.bravehost.com/eandpi.html >> >> I deduced it qualitatively. How can you prove it? > >No one can prove it, it's false. Although your >e * (2041141/1100)^(1/52) expression is close to pi, being >too large by about 1.4*10^-11, it definitely isn't equal. > >The reason your expression is fairly close to pi is that >2041141/1100 is the 10th convergent of the continued-fraction >form of (pi/e)^52. Excellent. |