From: christian.bau on
On Jul 13, 8:45 pm, Axel Vogt <&nore...(a)axelvogt.de> wrote:
> christian.bau wrote:
> > On Jul 12, 8:22 pm, Axel Vogt <&nore...(a)axelvogt.de> wrote:
> >> Let be P(x) = Sum(a(k)*x^k, k=0 .. N) a polynomial function,
> >> where the a(k) are rational numbers.
>
> >> I am looking for a 'handy' criterion when P maps integers
> >> to integers - say 'true for enough integers or large primes
> >> then yes' or so (sorry for being vague).
> ...
>
> > If the degree of the polynomial is n, and p (x) is an integer for n+1
> > consecutive integers, then p (x) is an integer for all integers x.
>
> Does it follow from the answers given or is there some direct
> proof as well? It seems to be a quite handy criterion.
>
> PS: Thanks to all (I hope it is ok that lame & general way)!

Proof by induction: Let p be a polynomial of degree n, and p (x) =
integer for x = m to m+n for some integer m. If n = 0 then p (x) is
constant with one integer value, so it maps all integers to integers.

Let n > 0. Consider the polynomial q (x) = p (x+1) - p (x) of degree
n-1. It has integer values for x = m to m+n-1. By induction q (x) is
an integer for every integer x, so p (x+1) - p (x) is an integer for
every integer x. p (x) can always be calculated by starting with the
integer p (m), and adding or subtracting values of p (x+1) - p (x)
which are all integers, so p (x) is an integer for every integer x.
From: Bill Dubuque on
"christian.bau" <christian.bau(a)cbau.wanadoo.co.uk> wrote:
> On Jul 13, 8:45 pm, Axel Vogt <&nore...(a)axelvogt.de> wrote:
>> christian.bau wrote:
>>> On Jul 12, 8:22 pm, Axel Vogt <&nore...(a)axelvogt.de> wrote:
>>>>
>>>> Let be P(x) = Sum(a(k)*x^k, k=0 .. N) a polynomial function,
>>>> where the a(k) are rational numbers.
>>
>>>> I am looking for a 'handy' criterion when P maps integers
>>>> to integers - say 'true for enough integers or large primes
>>>> then yes' or so (sorry for being vague).
>>
>>> If the degree of the polynomial is n, and p (x) is an integer for n+1
>>> consecutive integers, then p (x) is an integer for all integers x.
>>
>> Does it follow from the answers given or is there some direct
>> proof as well? It seems to be a quite handy criterion.
>
> Proof by induction: Let p be a polynomial of degree n, and p (x) =
> integer for x = m to m+n for some integer m. If n = 0 then p (x) is
> constant with one integer value, so it maps all integers to integers.
>
> Let n > 0. Consider the polynomial q (x) = p (x+1) - p (x) of degree
> n-1. It has integer values for x = m to m+n-1. By induction q (x) is
> an integer for every integer x, so p (x+1) - p (x) is an integer for
> every integer x. p (x) can always be calculated by starting with the
> integer p (m), and adding or subtracting values of p (x+1) - p (x)
> which are all integers, so p (x) is an integer for every integer x.

More generally: exploit the obvious recurrence - as I did below:

Date: 24 Oct 2002; Message-ID: <y8zvg3r7kq8.fsf(a)nestle.ai.mit.edu>
r.e.s <r...(a)mindspring.com> wrote: (paraphrased)
>
> CONJECTURE Let F(N) = c1 b1^N + c2 b2^N +...+ ck bk^N,
> where ci are complex numbers, and bi are integers.
> If F(N) is integral at k consecutive integers,
> then F stays integral after (at all larger integers N)

The conjecture is in fact true, and the proof is quite easy.

HINT: F(N) satisfies a monic integer coef recurrence of degree k

(S - b1) (S - b2) ... (S - bk) F(N) = 0, where

S is the linear N-shift: S b^N = b^(N+1), S c = c, for c complex.

Note: the linear operators S - bi commute, having constant coefs.

This recurrence is simply the characteristic polynomial of the

linear shift operator S on the vector space C[bi^N]. Here S has

diagonal matrix since S bi^N = bi bi^N. Since the matrix has all

integer entries, its characteristic poly too has all integer coefs

(which is immediate in this special case: multiply the S - bi ).

Note: The conjecture was posed by Mark J. Tilford in the original
thread in rec.puzzles, see
http://google.com/groups?threadm=slrnarc0go.oj7.tilford%40ralph.earthlink.net

--Bill Dubuque
From: Rob Johnson on
In article <8a3u32Fvs9U1(a)mid.individual.net>,
Axel Vogt <&noreply(a)axelvogt.de> wrote:
>christian.bau wrote:
>> On Jul 12, 8:22 pm, Axel Vogt <&nore...(a)axelvogt.de> wrote:
>>> Let be P(x) = Sum(a(k)*x^k, k=0 .. N) a polynomial function,
>>> where the a(k) are rational numbers.
>>>
>>> I am looking for a 'handy' criterion when P maps integers
>>> to integers - say 'true for enough integers or large primes
>>> then yes' or so (sorry for being vague).
>...
>>
>> If the degree of the polynomial is n, and p (x) is an integer for n+1
>> consecutive integers, then p (x) is an integer for all integers x.
>
>Does it follow from the answers given or is there some direct
>proof as well? It seems to be a quite handy criterion.

The condition about consecutive values being integers

Define the finite difference operator D by

Df(x) = f(x+1) - f(x) [1]

It follows from the recursive definition of Pascal's triangle that
for integer x,

D C(x,k) = C(x+1,k) - C(x,k) = C(x,k-1) [2]

Fortunately, to prove it for polynomials is not much harder; it's
just a matter of collecting common factors and simplifying:

C(x+1,k) - C(x,k)

= (x+1)x(x-1)...(x-k+2)/k! - x(x-1)(x-2)...(x-k+1)/k!

= ((x+1) - (x-k+1)) x(x-1)...(x-k+2)/k!

= k x(x-1)...(x-k+2)/k!

= x(x-1)...(x-k+2)/(k-1)!

= C(x,k-1)

Furthermore, we also have

C(0,0) = 1 [3a]

C(0,k) = 0 for k != 0 [3b]

We can use [2] and [3] to prove the following

Theorem: For any polynomial, P, of degree n,

n
--- k
P(x) = > D P(0) C(x,k) [4]
---
k=0

Proof: Since C(x,k) is a polynomial of degree k, it is obvious that
we can write P(x) as a linear combination of the C(x,k):

n
---
P(x) = > a C(x,k)
--- k
k=0

All that is left is to determine { a_k }. This is simple because
[2] and [3] assure us that

n
m ---
D P(0) = > a C(0,k-m)
--- k
k=0

= a
m
QED

By translating the argument to P, we get the following

Corollary: For any polynomial, P, of degree n,

n
--- k
P(x) = > D P(m) C(x-m,k) [5]
---
k=0

Proof:

Q(x) = P(x+m) is also a polynomial of degree n, so by [4], we get

n
--- k
Q(x) = > D Q(0) C(x,k)
---
k=0

Substituting x -> x-m, and writing Q in terms of P, we get [5].

QED

The Theorem and Lemma above not only provide a proof that if a
polynomial of degree n takes n+1 consecutive integers to integers,
then it can be written as an integral linear combination of
combinatorial polynomials, and therefore, takes all integers to
integers, but also gives a simple formula for the coefficients of
that integral linear combination.

For example, suppose P is a polynomial of degree 3 and

D D^2 D^3
P(3) = 26
P(2) = 11 15
P(1) = 4 7 8
P(0) = 1 3 4 4

Thus, P(x) = 4 C(x,3) + 4 C(x,2) + 3 C(x,1) + 1 C(x,0)

Rob Johnson <rob(a)trash.whim.org>
take out the trash before replying
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From: Rob Johnson on
In article <20100714.151151(a)whim.org>,
Rob Johnson <rob(a)trash.whim.org> wrote:
>The condition about consecutive values being integers

Sorry. Ignore that first line. It was left over from a previous
iteration.

Rob Johnson <rob(a)trash.whim.org>
take out the trash before replying
to view any ASCII art, display article in a monospaced font
From: Bill Dubuque on
Rob Johnson <rob(a)trash.whim.org> wrote:
>
> [...] The Theorem and Lemma above not only provide a proof that if
> a polynomial of degree n takes n+1 consecutive integers to integers,
> then it can be written as an integral linear combination of
> combinatorial polynomials, and therefore, takes all integers to
> integers, but also gives a simple formula for the coefficients of
> that integral linear combination.

That's many centuries old and very well-known, cf. the reference
to "finite difference calculus" in my earlier reply. For a much
more general modern treatment google "umbral calculus".

--Bill Dubuque