From: Mike on 13 May 2010 16:34 Does anyone know how to prove that there are "as many" primes congruent to 1 as to 3 modulo 4? My technical meaning of "as many" is this: Let A(n) be the number of primes < n that are = 1 mod 4 and let B(n) be the number of primes <n = 3 mod 4. Is it true that A(n) / B(n) approaches 1 as n goes to infinity? More generally, it is known that if (a,b) = 1 then there are infinitely many primes congruent to b mod a. This suggests: Conjecture: If a,b, and c are integers such that (a,b) = 1 and (a,c) = 1 then there are as many (in the above sense) primes congruent to b mod a as to c mod a. Does anybody know a reference for questions of this sort?
From: Raymond Manzoni on 13 May 2010 17:00 Mike a �crit : > Does anyone know how to prove that there are "as many" primes > congruent to 1 as to 3 modulo 4? My technical meaning of "as many" is > this: Let A(n) be the number of primes < n that are = 1 mod 4 and let > B(n) be the number of primes <n = 3 mod 4. Is it true that A(n) / > B(n) approaches 1 as n goes to infinity? More generally, it is known > that if (a,b) = 1 then there are infinitely many primes congruent to b > mod a. This suggests: > > Conjecture: If a,b, and c are integers such that (a,b) = 1 and (a,c) > = 1 then there are as many (in the above sense) primes congruent to b > mod a as to c mod a. > > Does anybody know a reference for questions of this sort? See for example here : <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prime_number_theorem#The_prime_number_theorem_for_arithmetic_progressions> and <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dirichlet%27s_theorem_on_arithmetic_progressions> Hoping this helped, Raymond
From: José Carlos Santos on 14 May 2010 09:06 On 13-05-2010 21:34, Mike wrote: > Does anyone know how to prove that there are "as many" primes > congruent to 1 as to 3 modulo 4? My technical meaning of "as many" is > this: Let A(n) be the number of primes< n that are = 1 mod 4 and let > B(n) be the number of primes<n = 3 mod 4. Is it true that A(n) / > B(n) approaches 1 as n goes to infinity? I don't know, but Littlewood proved that the sign of A(n) - B(n) changes infinitely often; see J. E. Littlewood Sur la distribution des nombres premiers C. R. hebd. S�anc. Acad. Sci. Paris 158(1914), pp. 1868-1872 See also W. W. L. Chen On the Error Term of the Prime Number Theorem and the Difference between the Number of Primes in the Residue Classes Modulo 4 J. London Math. Soc. 1981 s2-23: 24-40 Best regards, Jose Carlos Santos
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