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From: Archimedes Plutonium on 17 Jan 2010 15:26 Archimedes Plutonium wrote: > Alright, most people who are in math or dabble in math are going to > "shut-up" once > asked to define precisely what is a "finite number versus an infinite- > number". > Occasionally, some misguided person is going to belch out "finite-set" > not knowing > that we are talking about numbers, not sets. And even so, if we saddle > numbers > with a set-theory definition derived from finite-set and infinite-set > we have > counterexamples to show them that set-theory is flawed. > > So I asked : Nam Nguyen for his most precise definition of "finite > number" and he seems to have run away into hiding. I have asked Peter > Nyikos for his best precise definition > of "finite-number" and he seems to have run away into hiding. I have > asked David Bernier for his best precise definition of "finite number" > and no reply. > > So, I can take this survey right to sci.math itself, and without > having to ask anyone who > posted to sci.math of its entire history of posts, I can conduct a > survey to see how many > people understand and accept the definition of "finite-number versus > infinite-number" > as being the definition: a finite-number repeats in an endless string > of zeroes leftward > so that 9999 is finite because it is .....00009999 whilst 9999....9999 > is infinite. The immediate > contradiction of such a definition is that what about a number such as > 00009999....999 > which is finite according to that definition. Sorry, typing too fast, for that should have read 0000....9999. The idea is that when finite-number is defined in this manner we leave it open as to ambiguity and confusion and so it cannot be a precise definition of "finite-number". And this is what I mean that the only precision definition is to come down hard and select a number and call it the boundary mark of Finite and beyond is infinite (and to sandwich a Incognitum between Finite and Infinite). > > So to conduct a survey of all of sci.math as to how many people have > accepted and endorse > that definition of finite-number is very easy to conduct, because the > Reals of mathematics > is defined as a finite-string leftwards of the decimal point with a > infinite string rightwards. > So in other words, everyone who accepted the definition of a Real > Number has tacitly assumed that a finite-number is a number that ends > in a repeating string of zeroes leftwards. > > So even if Nam Nguyen and Peter Nyikos and David Bernier run away and > hide from my question of them defining precisely finite-number versus > infinite-number, because they > accept and use the Reals is admission that they accept the definition > of finite-number > as being a number that ends in an infinite string of zeroes leftwards. > > Now if I go through sci.math, I will actually see some posts in which > people have said > Reals are finite strings leftward of the decimal point. This is > tantamount to saying > Reals are finite-numbers left of the decimal point because they repeat > in zeroes to infinity. > > This is the reason why ten professors of prestigous colleges on the > East Coast said that > a finite-number is ending in zeroes leftwards, because they were > simply repeating what > they believed was the accepted definition of a Real Number. > > Now we can dive into the definition of Series and to make clear what > we mean by a > "string of digits". In that the Series 1 + 1 +1 +1 + . . . . + 1 is > seen as the Successor > Axiom of Peano axioms and it ends up being an infinite number since it > is unbounded. > Now the old-math could never represent that number other than a > sideways 8 as indicating > infinity, but with the FrontView and BackView of numbers I can easily > say that in decimal > number representation that series of adding 1s endlessly equals the > number 9999....9999, > or in binary is equal to 1111....11111. So how we define "string of > digits" in mathematics? > Well we use the Series definition that a String of Digits is either > the leftward portion of > a Real-number from the decimal or the rightward portion of a Real > Number from the decimal > point. So that we can say a Finite-Number is a string that ends in > zeroes to infinity. > > So how does Series define a finite-number such as "6"? Well it be like > this: > 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + ....+ 0 > > So, enough of a preliminary, now we can conduct a full survey of > Sci.math going back > further than the year 1993. My history of sci.math goes back only to > August of 1993, but > sci.math goes back further. And we can inspect any post by anyone who > talks about > finite versus infinite and who talks about Real-numbers. > > And in fact we can include everyone who wrote a mathematics textbook > to figure out > if the author had it in mind that the meaning or definition of "finite- > number" was a > definition revolving around the idea of string of zeroes leftwards to > infinity. > > So, Nam, and Peter, and David, you probably do not have to waste your > time with what > you believe is a finite-number, because you probably already displayed > your understanding > of what that definition is for you by the simple full endorsement of > what a Real-Number is. > > You see, I vary from every one else as to what is a Finite-number and > thus what is a > valid-Real-Number. The Real Numbers ends at 10^500 since that is the > end of finite-number > and thus algebra on Reals ends at 10^500. > > So a survey of everyone who posted to sci.math and to everyone who > wrote a book on > mathematics and who endorsed the Real-Numbers, everyone of them > accepted, whether > they realized it or not realized it, they accepted the definition of > finite-number as being a > number in which the leftwards string of digits eventually ends in > nothing but zeroes. > > All of those people assumed what finite-number was, and that is the > reason mathematics > starting with the Peano Axioms are inconsistent and that mathematics > as a whole is > in a dreadful state of collapse. When mathematics fails to precisely > define its concepts, > it fails to live up to its primary job-- precision, precision, > precision. The reason Goldbach > Conjecture or Fermat's Last Theorem or Riemann Hypothesis or Perfect > Numbers Conjecture > could not and will never be proven is because we never defined finite- > number with precision. > We assumed what finite-number meant. > > > Archimedes Plutonium > www.iw.net/~a_plutonium > whole entire Universe is just one big atom > where dots of the electron-dot-cloud are galaxies |