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From: sabeeee on 6 Jul 2010 22:33
Let E be the elliptic curve on \mathbb{Q}_p defined by the equation
y^2*z=x(x-z)(x-p*z), then the proper regular model of E is E1 :
y^2*z=x(px-z)(x-z) ? I know it is not, but why? I mean, E1 is proper,
and regular. Thanks !
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Prev: What gives you the right.?
Next: infinity in the large needs a boundary and infinity in the small needs a boundary #641 Correcting Math