Prev: more symmetry yet? Re: the *ultimate equivalent* Riemann Hypothesis statement? #695 Correcting Math
Next: In a Consistent System, Can a True Sentence Imply a False One?
From: Archimedes Plutonium on 18 Jul 2010 03:11 It is not going to be a question of "if math" defines the boundary by picking a large number but a question of when the community does it. It is the job of math to be the bearers of "precision" and here they have been derelict of duty. But one nice feature of defining it at 10^500 is it shows that Physics is the driver of math and not the other way around. Another benefit is that math no longer has unsolved problems, because if a estimate of whether it holds true from 0 to 10^500 is always given and all the proofs can be Direct method proofs. But perhaps one of the nicest benefits is that mathematics with its region of precision within 10^500 would be the region that is straight line linear Aristotelian Logic and beyond this region you have quantum duality logic. So the boundary safeguards mathematics as linear logic within that region. Archimedes Plutonium http://www.iw.net/~a_plutonium/ whole entire Universe is just one big atom where dots of the electron-dot-cloud are galaxies |