From: William Elliot on 4 Aug 2010 05:30 On Tue, 3 Aug 2010, Hagen wrote: >>>> Let R be a Boolean ring and a in R. >>>> Is there a prime ideal excluding a? >> >> I'm still trying to fix a flawed proof >> for which a hopefully yes answer to that >> question would complete the proof. > > For a Boolean ring with unity this is true: > it is known that such a ring is isomorphic to a > subring S of (Z_2)^I for some set I, and such that > p_i (S) = Z_2 for every i \in I, > where p_i: (Z_2)^I --> Z_2 is the natural projection > to the i-th component. I is the collection of homomorphisms of the Boolean ring into Z_2. The Boolean ring representation theorem is not to be used because proof of that is the flawed proof I'm trying to fix. I see now another approach to proving this theorem using the theorem that a Boolean group is embeds into a product of Z_2's. > Hence the ideal I_i we defined in an earlier post > always is a prime ideal of S. > No if a<>0 is some element of S, there exists > i \in I such that a(i)<>0. Hence a is not in I_i. >
From: Chip Eastham on 4 Aug 2010 10:54 On Aug 3, 2:32 pm, Arturo Magidin <magi...(a)member.ams.org> wrote: > On Aug 3, 8:14 am, Chip Eastham <hardm...(a)gmail.com> wrote: > > > > > On Aug 3, 5:57 am, William Elliot <ma...(a)rdrop.remove.com> wrote: > > > > On Mon, 2 Aug 2010, Arturo Magidin wrote: > > > >> If a is not in the intersection of all maximal ideals > > > >> and I is an ideal maximal within ideals not containing a, > > > >> then I is a maximal ideal. > > > > >> Steps for a proof. > > > >> There's some maximal ideal J with a not in J. > > > >> J subset I; I = J is maximal. > > > > > There is no reason whatsoever why two ideals that are maximal among > > > > those that do not contain I need to be related to one another by > > > > inclusion. > > > > Ok, I see the problem, confusing maximal with maximum. > > > How does one approach this problem? > > > Sometimes it helps to have standard names for things. > > > All (commutative) rings have maximal ideals. > > You are missing "with 1". Rings without 1 may lack maximal ideals. > > For example, every abelian group can be given the structure of a ring > by defining multiplication by ab=0 for all a and b; with this > definition, a subset is an ideal if and only if it is a subgroup. So > if you take an abelian group that has no maximal subgroups (e.g., the > rationals under addition) then you get a ring that has no maximal > ideals. There are less silly examples, of course. > > You need the unity to guarantee existence of maximal ideals, and if > you have unity then you do not need commutativity. > > -- > Arturo Magidin Thanks, Arturo, for sorting out the "with 1" condition. Nice example! regards, chip
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