Motion
in [Physics]
|
Prev: Free fall
Next: 50% OF POPULATION BELOW AVG IQ!
From: TomGee on 18 Sep 2005 14:16 Sam Wormley wrote: > Newton is much more precise > http://scienceworld.wolfram.com/physics/NewtonsLaws.html > > 1. (Law of inertia): A body at rest remains at rest and a > body in motion continues to move at a constant velocity > unless acted upon by an external force. > > Well, well, Worms, you're starting to support your beliefs with actual excerpts from your websites! Very good, keep it up. According to your buddy PD, though, the 1st law includes a claim that the body has no internal force to keep it in motion. Did you leave that out, or don'tcha agree with PD? > > > 2. A force F acting on a body gives it an acceleration a > which is in the direction of the force and has magnitude > inversely proportional to the mass m of the body: F = ma . > > Here F is the applied force, m is the mass of the particle, > and a = dv/dt is the particle's acceleration, with v being > the particle's velocity. This equation, together with the > principle that bodies act symmetrically on one another > (Newton's third law--so that the force particle A feels > from particle B is equal to the force B feels from A--is > the basis for understanding particle dynamics". > > PD claims such accelerations do not amount to a change in kinetic energy. Do you agree or disagree? > > > 3. Whenever a body exerts a force on another body, the latter > exerts a force of equal magnitude and opposite direction > on the former. This is known as the weak law of action and > reaction. > > "Newton's [second] law completely describes all the phenomena > of classical mechanics...." > > So the force in 2. above is different from the force of bodies striking each other? In 2., the force makes a body move in the same direction of the force, but in 3., the force of one body makes the other move away from it. So you're saying that whether the force exerts a come-hither effect or a repulsive effect depends upon, what?
From: Sam Wormley on 18 Sep 2005 14:34 TomGee wrote: > Sam Wormley wrote: > >>Newton is much more precise >> http://scienceworld.wolfram.com/physics/NewtonsLaws.html >> >> 1. (Law of inertia): A body at rest remains at rest and a >> body in motion continues to move at a constant velocity >> unless acted upon by an external force. >> >> > > Well, well, Worms, you're starting to support your beliefs with actual > excerpts from your websites! Very good, keep it up. > > According to your buddy PD, though, the 1st law includes a claim that > the body has no internal force to keep it in motion. Did you leave > that out, or don'tcha agree with PD? > >> >> 2. A force F acting on a body gives it an acceleration a >> which is in the direction of the force and has magnitude >> inversely proportional to the mass m of the body: F = ma . >> >> Here F is the applied force, m is the mass of the particle, >> and a = dv/dt is the particle's acceleration, with v being >> the particle's velocity. This equation, together with the >> principle that bodies act symmetrically on one another >> (Newton's third law--so that the force particle A feels >> from particle B is equal to the force B feels from A--is >> the basis for understanding particle dynamics". >> >> > > PD claims such accelerations do not amount to a change in kinetic > energy. Do you agree or disagree? > >> >> 3. Whenever a body exerts a force on another body, the latter >> exerts a force of equal magnitude and opposite direction >> on the former. This is known as the weak law of action and >> reaction. >> >> "Newton's [second] law completely describes all the phenomena >> of classical mechanics...." >> >> > > So the force in 2. above is different from the force of bodies striking > each other? In 2., the force makes a body move in the same direction > of the force, but in 3., the force of one body makes the other move > away from it. So you're saying that whether the force exerts a > come-hither effect or a repulsive effect depends upon, what? > TomGee demonstrates a need to do some wood shedding at his local library.
From: TomGee on 18 Sep 2005 14:43 Yes, I thought you would not know the answers, Worms. Evasive reply noted.
From: Sam Wormley on 18 Sep 2005 14:44 oriel36 wrote: > To Sam et al. > > What have I told you before. > > Newton worked off mean Sun/Earth distances and concentrated on > variations from the mean distances rather than mean motions along the > orbits as Kepler did *. As Newton concocted a geocentric/heliocentric > orbital equivalency cut from the cloth of Flamsteed's axial > rotation/stellar circumpolar equivalency you can get the stretching of > distances alright but you cannot fit the sidereal format which > facilitates the geocentric/heliocentric equivalency into a Keplerian > framework. > > http://www.pfm.howard.edu/astronomy/Chaisson/AT401/IMAGES/AACHCIR0.JPG > > Go ahead,under the Newtonian scheme,a constant .986 degree orbital > displacement in an elliptical framework generates the unsightly > spectacle of the Earth moving faster at the aphelion and slower at the > perihelion.You get the correct stretching of distances but the rest is > nothing but a giant fudge . > > If you can't figure it out join the rest of the numbskulls who are > helpless before Newton's deceitful maneuverings.What did you think,that > Albert was up to that peevish tyrannt.All Albert did was highlight and > expand on Newton and he is not to blame,just a harmless guy making the > 1898 fictional 'Time Machine' novel seem possible in an era when they > thought they could build a machine for everything. > > Newton is where the real substance is at but even he was not safe from > his disciples tampering for he never said F=ma and that geometry > applied to planetary motion never,ever worked. Implicit in the second law is a reference, and motion is always with respect to something. Newton's Second Law http://scienceworld.wolfram.com/physics/NewtonsSecondLaw.html Newton had is right, F = dp/dt is right on! "The motion of a particle is described by Euler's statement of Newton's second law, namely F = ma Here F is the applied force, m is the mass of the particle, and a = dv/dt is the particle's acceleration, with v being the particle's velocity. This equation, together with the principle that bodies act symmetrically on one another--so that the force particle A feels from particle B is equal to the force B feels from A--is the basis for understanding particle dynamics". "Newton's law completely describes all the phenomena of classical mechanics...."
From: Sam Wormley on 18 Sep 2005 14:51
TomGee wrote: > Yes, I thought you would not know the answers, Worms. Evasive reply > noted. > What exactly is the question? |