From: Alan Smaill on
Lester Zick <dontbother(a)nowhere.net> writes:

> On Sun, 15 Apr 2007 00:55:33 +0100, Alan Smaill
> <smaill(a)SPAMinf.ed.ac.uk> wrote:
>
>>Lester Zick <dontbother(a)nowhere.net> writes:
>>
>>> On Sat, 14 Apr 2007 19:56:23 +0100, Alan Smaill
>>> <smaill(a)SPAMinf.ed.ac.uk> wrote:
>>>
>>>>Lester Zick <dontbother(a)nowhere.net> writes:
>>>>
>>>>> On Sat, 14 Apr 2007 13:56:37 +0100, Alan Smaill
>>>>> <smaill(a)SPAMinf.ed.ac.uk> wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>>>Lester Zick <dontbother(a)nowhere.net> writes:
>>>>>>
>>>>>>> On Fri, 13 Apr 2007 16:10:39 +0100, Alan Smaill
>>>>>>> <smaill(a)SPAMinf.ed.ac.uk> wrote:
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>Lester Zick <dontbother(a)nowhere.net> writes:
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> On Thu, 12 Apr 2007 14:23:04 -0400, Tony Orlow <tony(a)lightlink.com>
>>>>>>>>> wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>That's okay. 0 for 0 is 100%!!! :)
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Not exactly, Tony. 0/0 would have to be evaluated under L'Hospital's
>>>>>>>>> rule.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>Dear me ... L'Hospital's rule is invalid.
>
> So returning to the original point, would you care to explain your
> claim that L'Hospital's rule is invalid?

haha!


> ~v~~

--
Alan Smaill
From: Virgil on
In article <VZGdnTTzjvOPG7_bnZ2dnUVZ_hGdnZ2d(a)comcast.com>,
"K_h" <KHolmes(a)SX729.com> wrote:

> "Virgil" <virgil(a)comcast.net> wrote in message
> news:virgil-B82679.22384714042007(a)comcast.dca.giganews.com...
> > In article <qbOdnddPifcj97zbnZ2dnUVZ_rylnZ2d(a)comcast.com>,
> > "K_h" <KHolmes(a)SX729.com> wrote:
> >
> >> "Virgil" <virgil(a)comcast.net> wrote in message
> >> news:virgil-9A74B0.17144214042007(a)comcast.dca.giganews.com...
> >> > In article <JvmdneShNPwdxLzbnZ2dnUVZ_tCtnZ2d(a)comcast.com>,
> >> > "K_h" <KHolmes(a)SX729.com> wrote:
> >> >
> >> >
> >> > A total order relation "<" on a set has the property that for every x
> >> > and y in the set, at least one of x<y, y< x or x=y is true
> >> > For a set with two or more elements, equality does not satisfy this
> >> > requirement, since there are members which are NOT equal.
> >>
> >> It depends on the set. Consider the set {A, B, C, D} with an order
> >> relation
> >> A=B=C=D.
> >
> > If "=" is the equality relation on {A,B,C,D} with A=B=C=D,then
> > {A,B,C,D} = {A} = {B} = {C} = {D}, but is, in any case, a set with only
> > one element.
> >
> >
> >
> >> Clearly there is more than one member in the set
> >
> > If all members are equal then there s only one member.
>
> I did not mean equality as in the same set. From Wikipedia, a set is
> ordered if every pair of its members is mutually comparable. If, for any
> two distinct members x y, we cannot tell if any of these are true (x<y, x=y,
> y<x) then the set is not ordered. Consider a set of four people and the set
> is ordered by height. Sam if 5 feet tall, Jane is 6 feet tall, John is 6
> feet tall, and Mike is 7 feet tall. The set {Sam, Jane, John, Mike} is
> ordered by:
>
> Sam < Jane = John < Mike
>
> Clearly every pair of members of this set is comparable and Jane = John
> under this ordering. Equality here means that Jane and John are comparable
> and equal under the ordering; it does not mean that Jane is John. This is
> an ordered set by Wikipedia's definition because all of its members are
> mutually comparable under the relation. Are you claiming that an ordered
> set requires x<y or y<x for any two distinct members x and y?

A totally ordered set does.


> If so, please
> cite your sources for this since this requirement is not specified in the
> definition given. If that were true then Wikipedia's definition, along with
> many others, is ambiguous.

For totally and strictly ordered sets, with order "<", one always has
one and only one of x<y or y<x or x = y, which is called the law of
trichotomy.

For totally but weakly ordered sets, with order ">=", one has
x >= y or y >= x.

For partially ordered sets one need not have trichotomy.

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/StrictOrder.html
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/TotallyOrderedSet.html


>
> K_h
From: Lester Zick on
On Sun, 15 Apr 2007 21:34:09 +0100, Alan Smaill
<smaill(a)SPAMinf.ed.ac.uk> wrote:

>>>>>>>>>Dear me ... L'Hospital's rule is invalid.
>>
>> So returning to the original point, would you care to explain your
>> claim that L'Hospital's rule is invalid?
>
>haha!

Why am I not surprized? Remarkable how many mathematiker opinions on
the subject of mathematics don't quite hold up to critical scrutiny.

~v~~
From: K_h on

"Virgil" <virgil(a)comcast.net> wrote in message
news:virgil-19C008.15430215042007(a)comcast.dca.giganews.com...
> In article <VZGdnTTzjvOPG7_bnZ2dnUVZ_hGdnZ2d(a)comcast.com>,
> "K_h" <KHolmes(a)SX729.com> wrote:
>
>> "Virgil" <virgil(a)comcast.net> wrote in message
>> news:virgil-B82679.22384714042007(a)comcast.dca.giganews.com...
>> > In article <qbOdnddPifcj97zbnZ2dnUVZ_rylnZ2d(a)comcast.com>,
>> > "K_h" <KHolmes(a)SX729.com> wrote:
>> >
>> >> "Virgil" <virgil(a)comcast.net> wrote in message
>> >> news:virgil-9A74B0.17144214042007(a)comcast.dca.giganews.com...
>> >> > In article <JvmdneShNPwdxLzbnZ2dnUVZ_tCtnZ2d(a)comcast.com>,
>> >> > "K_h" <KHolmes(a)SX729.com> wrote:
>> >> >
>> >> >

<removed for size>

>> I did not mean equality as in the same set. From Wikipedia, a set is
>> ordered if every pair of its members is mutually comparable. If, for any
>> two distinct members x y, we cannot tell if any of these are true (x<y,
>> x=y,
>> y<x) then the set is not ordered. Consider a set of four people and the
>> set
>> is ordered by height. Sam if 5 feet tall, Jane is 6 feet tall, John is 6
>> feet tall, and Mike is 7 feet tall. The set {Sam, Jane, John, Mike} is
>> ordered by:
>>
>> Sam < Jane = John < Mike
>>
>> Clearly every pair of members of this set is comparable and Jane = John
>> under this ordering. Equality here means that Jane and John are
>> comparable
>> and equal under the ordering; it does not mean that Jane is John. This
>> is
>> an ordered set by Wikipedia's definition because all of its members are
>> mutually comparable under the relation. Are you claiming that an ordered
>> set requires x<y or y<x for any two distinct members x and y?
>
> A totally ordered set does.

In mathworld's definition for a totally ordered set, I still don't see where
there is a requirement that x<y or y<x for any two distinct members. The
example I gave satisfied mathworld's definition. If x=Sam and y=Jane then
x<y is satisfied and both x=y and y<x is false. If x=Jane and y=John then
x=y is true and both x<y and y<x is false. In all these cases one and only
one of (x<y, x=y, y<x) is true. Certainly for a set like the real numbers,
under their usual ordering, two different real numbers can never be equal.
Can you provide a source where the definition of a totally ordered set
*requires* that x<y or y<x for any two distinct members x and y? If so then
mathworld's definition for a totally ordered set is ambiguous.

K_h


From: Virgil on
In article <87WdnbF6VIxxMr_bnZ2dnUVZ_gqdnZ2d(a)comcast.com>,
"K_h" <KHolmes(a)SX729.com> wrote:

> "Virgil" <virgil(a)comcast.net> wrote in message
> news:virgil-19C008.15430215042007(a)comcast.dca.giganews.com...
> > In article <VZGdnTTzjvOPG7_bnZ2dnUVZ_hGdnZ2d(a)comcast.com>,
> > "K_h" <KHolmes(a)SX729.com> wrote:
> >
> >> "Virgil" <virgil(a)comcast.net> wrote in message
> >> news:virgil-B82679.22384714042007(a)comcast.dca.giganews.com...
> >> > In article <qbOdnddPifcj97zbnZ2dnUVZ_rylnZ2d(a)comcast.com>,
> >> > "K_h" <KHolmes(a)SX729.com> wrote:
> >> >
> >> >> "Virgil" <virgil(a)comcast.net> wrote in message
> >> >> news:virgil-9A74B0.17144214042007(a)comcast.dca.giganews.com...
> >> >> > In article <JvmdneShNPwdxLzbnZ2dnUVZ_tCtnZ2d(a)comcast.com>,
> >> >> > "K_h" <KHolmes(a)SX729.com> wrote:
> >> >> >
> >> >> >
>
> <removed for size>
>
> >> I did not mean equality as in the same set. From Wikipedia, a set is
> >> ordered if every pair of its members is mutually comparable. If, for any
> >> two distinct members x y, we cannot tell if any of these are true (x<y,
> >> x=y,
> >> y<x) then the set is not ordered. Consider a set of four people and the
> >> set
> >> is ordered by height. Sam if 5 feet tall, Jane is 6 feet tall, John is 6
> >> feet tall, and Mike is 7 feet tall. The set {Sam, Jane, John, Mike} is
> >> ordered by:
> >>
> >> Sam < Jane = John < Mike
> >>
> >> Clearly every pair of members of this set is comparable and Jane = John
> >> under this ordering. Equality here means that Jane and John are
> >> comparable
> >> and equal under the ordering; it does not mean that Jane is John.

Then the set is not totally ordered, but only partially ordered.
In a totally and strictly ordered set of any two different members, one
MUST be larger and the other smaller.


This
> >> is
> >> an ordered set by Wikipedia's definition because all of its members are
> >> mutually comparable under the relation. Are you claiming that an ordered
> >> set requires x<y or y<x for any two distinct members x and y?
> >
> > A totally ordered set does.
>
> In mathworld's definition for a totally ordered set, I still don't see where
> there is a requirement that x<y or y<x for any two distinct members.

Trichotomy!
<quote>
4. Comparability (trichotomy law): For any a and x , either x >= y or
y >= x.
<unquote>

This means that whenever x = y does NOT hold then either x>y or y>x.

> Can you provide a source where the definition of a totally ordered set
> *requires* that x<y or y<x for any two distinct members x and y? If so then
> mathworld's definition for a totally ordered set is ambiguous.

See above! Unless x = y, one must have either x<y or y<x !!!!