From: Virgil on
In article
<37526874-54ab-47bb-89d6-84ca71e6086f(a)e20g2000vbn.googlegroups.com>,
"jmorriss(a)idirect.com" <jmorriss(a)idirect.com> wrote:

> On Jul 31, 7:28�pm, Virgil <Vir...(a)home.esc> wrote:
> > In article
> > <30ca2a57-710d-4f40-9153-26eed41dc...(a)n19g2000prf.googlegroups.com>,
> > �Ray Vickson <RGVick...(a)shaw.ca> wrote:
> >
> >
> >
> >
> >
> > > On Jul 31, 12:42�am, William Elliot <ma...(a)rdrop.remove.com> wrote:
> > > > On Fri, 30 Jul 2010, Ray Vickson wrote:
> > > > > On Jul 29, 9:56�pm, William Elliot <ma...(a)rdrop.remove.com> wrote:
> > > > >> What are the solutions to the equations
> >
> > > > >> sin^-1 x = 1/sin x,
> >
> > > > >> cos^-1 x = 1/cos x?
> >
> > > > >> Since
> > > > >> sin^-2 x = 1/sin^2 x,
> >
> > > > > If sin^-1 x means arcsin(x), then what the heck does sin^-2 x mean? Is
> > > > > it arcsin(arcsin(x))?
> >
> > > > Does sin^2 x = sin sin x?
> >
> > > No, but that is only because the notation sin^2 is somewhat standard.
> > > This would not be the case for arcsin^2: since that notation is not at
> > > all standard, I would perfectly well be allowed to define it as
> > > arcsin^2 x = arcsin(arcsin x) or as (arcsin x)^2. However, if I were
> > > going to use it in a document, I would certainly define it first.
> > > Please, just tell me: what is so hard about defining what you mean?
> >
> > > R.G. Vickson
> >
> > One way to avoid the confusion is always to write
> > � �1/sin(x) as csc(x) or as sin(x)^(-1) and
> > � �the inverse function to sin(x) on -pi < x <= pi as arcsin(x)
> > thus avoiding 'sin^-1 x' entirely- Hide quoted text -
> >
> > - Show quoted t
>
>
>
>
> Uh... So, does sin(x)^(-1) equal csc(x), or does it equal sin(1/x) ?

While sin(x^-1) = sin(1/x) works, sin(x)^(-1) = sin(1/x) does not!
>
> I agree about the arcsin.. My job of teaching math would be MUCH
> easier if the -1 exponent on a trig function only meant the
> reciprocal... While we're at it, we should limit the use of inverse,
> as well...
From: William Elliot on
On Sat, 31 Jul 2010, Virgil wrote:
> Ray Vickson <RGVickson(a)shaw.ca> wrote:
>> On Jul 31, 12:42�am, William Elliot <ma...(a)rdrop.remove.com> wrote:
>>> On Fri, 30 Jul 2010, Ray Vickson wrote:
>>>> On Jul 29, 9:56�pm, William Elliot <ma...(a)rdrop.remove.com> wrote:

>>>>> What are the solutions to the equations
>>>
>>>>> sin^-1 x = 1/sin x,
>>>>> cos^-1 x = 1/cos x?
>>>
>>>>> Since sin^-2 x = 1/sin^2 x,
>>>
>>>> If sin^-1 x means arcsin(x), then what the heck does sin^-2 x mean?
>>>> Is it arcsin(arcsin(x))?
>>>
>>> Does sin^2 x = sin sin x?
>>
>> No, but that is only because the notation sin^2 is somewhat standard.
>> This would not be the case for arcsin^2: since that notation is not at
>> all standard, I would perfectly well be allowed to define it as
>> arcsin^2 x = arcsin(arcsin x) or as (arcsin x)^2. However, if I were
>> going to use it in a document, I would certainly define it first.
>> Please, just tell me: what is so hard about defining what you mean?
>
> One way to avoid the confusion is always to write
> 1/sin(x) as csc(x) or as sin(x)^(-1) and
> the inverse function to sin(x) on -pi < x <= pi as arcsin(x)
> thus avoiding 'sin^-1 x' entirely
>
That's what my mathematical handbook uses
to avoid this notational ambiguity.

Here's another. Solve
sin^2 x = sin^2 x,
cos^2 x = cos^2 x.

Huh? That's the problem?
(sin x)^2 = sin^2 x = sin sin x
(cos x)^2 = cos^2 x = cos cos x

----
From: William Elliot on
On Sun, 1 Aug 2010, Mike Terry wrote:
> "Ray Vickson" <RGVickson(a)shaw.ca> wrote in message
>>> On Fri, 30 Jul 2010, Ray Vickson wrote:

>>>>> What are the solutions to the equations
>>>
>>>>> sin^-1 x = 1/sin x,
>>>>> cos^-1 x = 1/cos x?
>>>
>>>>> Since sin^-2 x = 1/sin^2 x,
>>>
>>>> If sin^-1 x means arcsin(x), then what the heck does sin^-2 x mean?
>>>> Is it arcsin(arcsin(x))?
>>>
>>> Does sin^2 x = sin sin x?
>>
>> No, but that is not the issue: YOU used the notation sin^-2 x, not me.
>> Why can't you just say what you mean? Is that so hard?
>
> Obviously William means that
>
> sin^-2 x = (sin x)^-2
> and sin^-1 x = (sin x)^-1 etc.
>
> I believe this may actually be the "standard" interpretation of the
> notation he used(?). Looking at his "tricky equations" thread, it seems
> that he has "tricked" everyone, since everyone interpreted sin^-1 x as
> arctan x. And he even announced in advance he was trying to trick
> everyone!
>
Shucks, they missed my pun. Here's another. Solve
sin^2 x = sin^2 x
and
cos^2 x = cos^2 x.

> Ho ho ho ho ho. Well done William. (Of course, it could be argued that
> it's not a particularly amusing trick, but it's quite good compared to
> William's sense of humour in other threads! :-)
>
> You could start a long discussion about what the notation sin^-1 x
> "actually" means and argue with him, but why spoil the joke...

There's no arguing with a pun.