From: Hexenmeister on
Oh goody! Kook fight!
Androcles.




"Tom Roberts" <tjroberts(a)lucent.com> wrote in message
news:7sgSf.47814$F_3.9199(a)newssvr29.news.prodigy.net...
| George Hammond wrote:
| > "Tom Roberts" <tjroberts(a)lucent.com> wrote in message
| > news:CVCQf.51646$H71.7983(a)newssvr13.news.prodigy.com...
| >> Here's a test of your understanding of that paper: Today
| >> we commonly write the Einstein Field Equation (using
| >> component notation and units comparable to Einstein's):
| >> G^uv = 8 pi G T^uv
| >> The name "Einstein Field Equation" comes from the fact
| >> that Einstein first derived and presented it in this paper
| >> -- in which equation of the paper is it presented?
| >>
| >> If you cannot answer this question, you don't understand
| >> that paper. Or almost certainly, GR itself.
| >>
| > [Hammond]
| > I notice Tucker never gave a direct answer to your
| > question Tom,... but I will. I say the answer to your
| > (Tom Roberts') specific question (above) is:
| > "Equation 53, page 149"
| > of Einstein's famous 1916 paper
| > (ibid: Dover's "...Relativity")
|
| Yes.
|
| > ... and the reason why, is
| > because G_uv (the Einstein
| > tensor reduces to R_uv
| > (the Ricci tensor) for
| > sqrt(-g) =1 which is
| > the case in eqn 53.....
|
| No. There is no situation in which G_uv "reduces" to R_uv -- G_uv is
| defined:
| G_uv = R_uv - 0.5 g_uv R
| and your claim would imply either g_uv=0 or R=0, neither of which makes
| any sense at all (R=0 applies in certain manifolds with unphysical
| symmetries, but not in general).
|
| In fact, Einstein's Eq. 53 uses the alternate form of the Einstein field
| equation:
| R_uv = 8 pi G (T_uv - 0.5 g_uv T)
|
|
| Exercise for the reader: show the relationship between the
| LHS of Einstein's eq. 53 and R_uv.
|
|
| > hence
| > eqn 53 is actually the first
| > appearance of "Einstein's EFE"
| > in his famous 1916 paper!
|
| Yes.
|
|
| Tom Roberts tjroberts(a)lucent.com


From: George Hammond on

"Tom Roberts" <tjroberts(a)lucent.com> wrote in message
news:7sgSf.47814$F_3.9199(a)newssvr29.news.prodigy.net...
>
> George Hammond wrote:
>>
>> "Tom Roberts" <tjroberts(a)lucent.com> wrote in message
>> news:CVCQf.51646$H71.7983(a)newssvr13.news.prodigy.com...
>>
>>> [Roberts]
>>> Here's a test of your understanding of that paper: Today
>>> we commonly write the Einstein Field Equation (using
>>> component notation and units comparable to Einstein's):
>>> G^uv = 8 pi G T^uv
>>> The name "Einstein Field Equation" comes from the fact
>>> that Einstein first derived and presented it in this paper
>>> -- in which equation of the paper is it presented?
>>>
>>> If you cannot answer this question, you don't understand
>>> that paper. Or almost certainly, GR itself.
>>>
>> [Hammond]
>> I notice Tucker never gave a direct answer to your
>> question Tom,... but I will. I say the answer to your
>> (Tom Roberts') specific question (above) is:
>> "Equation 53, page 149"
>> of Einstein's famous 1916 paper
>> (ibid: Dover's "...Relativity")
>
> [Roberts] Yes.
>
[Hammond]
Yea.
>>
>> [Hammond]
>> ... and the reason why, is
>> because G_uv (the Einstein
>> tensor reduces to R_uv
>> (the Ricci tensor) for
>> sqrt(-g) =1 which is
>> the case in eqn 53.....
>
> No. There is no situation in which G_uv "reduces" to R_uv -- G_uv is
> defined:
> G_uv = R_uv - 0.5 g_uv R
> and your claim would imply either g_uv=0 or R=0, neither of which makes
> any sense at all (R=0 applies in certain manifolds with unphysical
> symmetries, but not in general).
>
[Hammond]
R=0 holds for empty space in Gen. Relativity....
and we don't need "unphysical manifolds".... all we need is the
absence of matter (i.e. flat space)! In that case Einstein frequently
wrote the EFE as:

R_uv = 0

rather than

G__uv = 0

so in that sense "the EFE reduces from G_uv=0 to
R_uv = 0", even though, as you correctly point out,
G_uv does not reduce to R_uv in general... but only in empty
space.

=================================
But the point I was making is the point Einstein made in his
paper (ibid) and that is that we must define g_uv such that
det(g)=|g|=-1. i.e. sqrt(-g)=1. In that case, Einstein says

"the tensor G_uv reduces to R_uv" (Einstein,
p. 142, paragraph 1, line 10)

Fact is, I am a bit confused on this point, perhaps you
could clarify this point for me as I'm short on time and
you probably already know the answer? For instance
does sqrt(-g)=1 imply flat space?
==================================

> In fact, Einstein's Eq. 53 uses the alternate form of the Einstein field
> equation:
> R_uv = 8 pi G (T_uv - 0.5 g_uv T)
>
>
> Exercise for the reader: show the relationship between the
> LHS of Einstein's eq. 53 and R_uv.
>
[Hammond]
It is well known that there are two equivalent forms
of the EFE:

form 1) R_uv - 0.5 R = 8 pi G T_uv
or
form 2) R_uv = 8 pi G (T_uv - 0.5 g_uv T)

as you point out Einstein's 1916 paper uses form 2)
(eqn 53 p. 149)...... and he writes R_uv in terms
of the Christoffel symbols in eqn 53.
As for your "homework problem" of showing
that his Christoffel expression on the LHS of eqn 53
is equal to R_uv..... Einstein has already stated that
result two pages earlier (eqns 44 p.142... middle line).


>
>> hence
>> eqn 53 is actually the first
>> appearance of "Einstein's EFE"
>> in his famous 1916 paper!
>
> Yes.
>
[Hammond]
Again, yea.
>
> Tom Roberts tjroberts(a)lucent.com

--
========================================
SCIENTIFIC PROOF OF GOD WEBSITE
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mirror site:
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========================================


From: Tom Roberts on
George Hammond wrote:
> "Tom Roberts" <tjroberts(a)lucent.com> wrote in message
> news:7sgSf.47814$F_3.9199(a)newssvr29.news.prodigy.net...
>> No. There is no situation in which G_uv "reduces" to R_uv -- G_uv is
>> defined:
>> G_uv = R_uv - 0.5 g_uv R
>> and your claim would imply either g_uv=0 or R=0, neither of which makes
>> any sense at all (R=0 applies in certain manifolds with unphysical
>> symmetries, but not in general).
>>
> [Hammond]
> R=0 holds for empty space in Gen. Relativity....
> and we don't need "unphysical manifolds".>

I said "unphysical symmetries", and R=0 is certainly that. The universe
we inhabit cannot be modeled well by any manifold with R=0, so in that
sense this is indeed unphysical.


>... all we need is the
> absence of matter (i.e. flat space)!

Absence of matter does NOT imply flat space (or rather, flat spaceTIME).
E.g. the Schwarzschild manifold has no matter, yet is not flat.


> In that case Einstein frequently
> wrote the EFE as:
> R_uv = 0
> rather than
> G__uv = 0

Yes. Not because R=0 but rather because T^uv=0, which implies T=0.

Remember there are two equivalent formulations of the Einstein field
equation:
R_uv - 0.5 g_uv R = 8 pi G T_uv
R_uv = 8 pi G (T_uv - 0.5 g_uv T)

The second form gives R_uv=0 in vacuum.


> so in that sense "the EFE reduces from G_uv=0 to
> R_uv = 0", even though, as you correctly point out,
> G_uv does not reduce to R_uv in general... but only in empty
> space.

G_uv does not in general "reduce" to R_uv in empty space. It does so
only in _flat_ spacetime [#], and 0=0 is not a very enlightening
"reduction".

[#] and certain other cases for which R=0 but R_uv!=0.


> But the point I was making is the point Einstein made in his
> paper (ibid) and that is that we must define g_uv such that
> det(g)=|g|=-1. i.e. sqrt(-g)=1. In that case, Einstein says
> "the tensor G_uv reduces to R_uv" (Einstein,
> p. 142, paragraph 1, line 10)

The condition sqrt(-g)=1 is not sufficient to imply R=0, and not
sufficient to imply G_uv=R_uv. I suspect Einstein had more context....


> Fact is, I am a bit confused on this point, perhaps you
> could clarify this point for me as I'm short on time and
> you probably already know the answer? For instance
> does sqrt(-g)=1 imply flat space?

No. Nor does R=0.

But R^i_jkl=0 does, because that is what we mean by "flat".



Tom Roberts tjroberts(a)lucent.com
From: George Hammond on

"Tom Roberts" <tjroberts(a)lucent.com> wrote in message
news:74rSf.61048$dW3.43315(a)newssvr21.news.prodigy.com...
..
> G_uv does not in general "reduce" to R_uv in empty space. It does so only
> in _flat_ spacetime [#], and 0=0 is not a very enlightening "reduction".
>
[Hammond]
Wrong.
G_uv, R_uv, R, T_uv, and T are ALL zero
in empty space even tho said empty space
may not be flat!
An example is the space outside the Earth above the atmosphere.
G_uv, R_uv, R, T_uv and T are all zero, but spacetime is not
flat at said location.
In such a location the EFE can be written

G_uv = 0 or R_uv = 0

Either equation will determine the Schwarzchild solution for instance.

In that sense, it is said sometimes that G_uv reduces to R_uv
in empty space..

P.A.M. Dirac put it this way in his celebrated monograph
_General Theory of Relativity_
----------------------------------------
Dirac says on page 43::

"The Einstein equations in the absence of matter are:
(24.1) R_uv = 0
They lead to
R=0;
and hence
(24.2) R_uv-1/2 g_uv R = 0
We may use either R_uv = 0 or R_uv-1/2 g_uv R=0
as ther basic equations for empty space.
---------------------------------------

--
========================================
SCIENTIFIC PROOF OF GOD WEBSITE
http://geocities.com/scientific_proof_of_god
mirror site:
http://proof-of-god.freewebsitehosting.com
========================================


From: Tom Roberts on
George Hammond wrote:
> "Tom Roberts" <tjroberts(a)lucent.com> wrote in message
> news:74rSf.61048$dW3.43315(a)newssvr21.news.prodigy.com...
>> G_uv does not in general "reduce" to R_uv in empty space. It does so only
>> in _flat_ spacetime [#], and 0=0 is not a very enlightening "reduction".
>
> Wrong.
> G_uv, R_uv, R, T_uv, and T are ALL zero
> in empty space even tho said empty space
> may not be flat!

OK. We are using different contexts. What I wrote above was in the
context of abstract differential geometry, while yours is in the context
of GR.

I should not have switched contexts like that. Sorry. But in my defense
I'll say that "G reduces to R" surely sounds like an attempt to make a
general statement about differential geometry; in fact the EFE is
required, and that limits it to the context of GR.


Tom Roberts tjroberts(a)lucent.com
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