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From: porky_pig_jr on 22 Jun 2010 13:45
On Jun 22, 11:51 am, David C. Ullrich <ullr...(a)math.okstate.edu>
wrote:
> On Mon, 21 Jun 2010 16:20:07 -0700 (PDT), "porky_pig...(a)my-deja.com"
>
> <porky_pig...(a)my-deja.com> wrote:
> >[...]
> >Now, after some thinking, I see the connections between proof 1 and
> >proof 2. The "..." in proof 1 make it appear less rigorous than proof
> >2, but connection is clear. So, in some respect, they are equivalent.
>
> Save those thoughts! Many proofs that don't explicitly use induction
> are really proofs by induction in disguise.

OK. Thanks again for all the feedback.

PPJ.
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