From: Robert Israel on 23 Jun 2010 22:41 Dan Cass <dcass(a)sjfc.edu> writes: > > integral(t = 0 .. 2*Pi) exp( A.cos(t) + B.sin(t) ) dt > > = ?? > > > > Han de Bruijn > > Maple doesn't even know the indefinite > integral of exp(cos(x)). True: that is not an elementary function. > Nor does it know the definite integral > of exp(cos(x)) from 0 to 2*Pi. This one the latest version (Maple 14) does know, although previous versions didn't. On the other hand int(exp(sin(x)), x = 0 .. 2*Pi) still returns unevaluated. Of course a change of variables makes Han's integral into int(exp(R*cos(t)),t=0..2*Pi) = 2*Pi*I_0(R) (where R = sqrt(A^2 + B^2), and I_0 is the modified Bessel function of the first kind with order 0). > This may mean that even a complex analysis contour integral approach will > not work. That is not particularly relevant one way or the other. In this case one way to see the result is to expand the exponential as a power series, note that int(cos(t)^n, t=0..2*Pi) = 0 if n is odd (by symmetry) = 2 pi n!/(((n/2)!)^2 2^n) if n is even (by writing cos(t) = (exp(it) + exp(-it))/2 and expanding), and use I_0(x) = sum(4^(-k)/k!^2*x^(2*k),k = 0 .. infinity). Another way is to differentiate the integral twice and use integration by parts to show that the integral satisfies the modified Bessel differential equation of order 0. -- Robert Israel israel(a)math.MyUniversitysInitials.ca Department of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel University of British Columbia Vancouver, BC, Canada
From: Han de Bruijn on 24 Jun 2010 05:03 On Jun 23, 5:47 pm, r...(a)trash.whim.org (Rob Johnson) wrote: > In article <c641a0f7-31f3-4fe7-b393-b19339c2c...(a)5g2000yqz.googlegroups.com>, > > dvsarwate <dvsarw...(a)gmail.com> wrote: > >On Jun 23, 7:53 am, Han de Bruijn <umum...(a)gmail.com> wrote: > >> integral(t = 0 .. 2*Pi) exp( A.cos(t) + B.sin(t) ) dt = ?? > > >> Han de Bruijn > > >Since the argument of the exponential can be expressed > >as sqrt(A^2 + B^2).cos(t - arctan(B/A)), the value should > >be proportional to I_0(sqrt(A^2 + B^2)) where I_0 is the > >0-th order modified Bessel function of the first kind. > > >http://www.math.sfu.ca/~cbm/aands/page_376.htm > > In fact it is 2pi I_0(sqrt(A^2 + B^2)), which can be computed as > > oo > --- 2 pi A^2 + B^2 k > > ---- ( --------- ) > --- k!^2 4 > k=0 > > Rob Johnson <r...(a)trash.whim.org> > take out the trash before replying > to view any ASCII art, display article in a monospaced font And only six (6) terms of that series are more than sufficient. Thanx! Han de Bruijn
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