From: MoeBlee on
On Jun 29, 11:30 am, Charlie-Boo <shymath...(a)gmail.com> wrote:
> On Jun 29, 12:13 pm, MoeBlee <jazzm...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:

> > On Jun 29, 10:25 am, Charlie-Boo <shymath...(a)gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > > On Jun 29, 10:55 am, MoeBlee <jazzm...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
>
> > > > On Jun 28, 9:07 pm, Charlie-Boo <shymath...(a)gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > > > > On Jun 28, 12:24 pm, MoeBlee <jazzm...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
> > > > > > And it's easy enough to see that if a theory has a model then that
> > > > > > theory is consistent.
>
> > > > > Is that an axiomatic proof in ZFC?
>
> > > > Plain Z-regularity proves that if a theory has a model then the theory
> > > > is consistent. It's quite simple; you would come up with it yourself
> > > > on just a moment's reflection.
>
> > > Sorry, but I don't know what proof you have in mind, so I can't
> > > determine how the Axiom of Regularity would play a role.
>
> > It DOESN'T play a role, which is why I took it out.
>
> I asked what axiom is essential and would be needed to carry out the
> proof in PA. I thought you were answering that. So what is the
> answer?
>
> > In other words, we
> > can prove in Z set theory even without the axiom of regularity
> > (possibly without certain other axioms? but I've never done such
> > detailed bookkeeping, as my only claim is that Z-R is SUFFICIENT).

THAT is my answer. Damn, please READ my post if you're going to ask
question about it.

> > As to the proof. Would you just TRY to do it in your mind one time?
>
> I did. You can't just say the Axiom of Infinity provides a model as
> you have to also prove that implies consistency. You claim to know
> how, so be a mathematician and substantiate your claim.

Of course, that is not the proof.

Damn, I'm really using up my time with you.

Look, in Z set theory we have:

w (omega), 0, the successor function on w, the addition function for
w, and the multiplication function for w.

Now, take each axiom of PA and verify it is a theorem of Z as
translated per the above and for all members of w. For example:

'Sn' in PA translates to 'nu{n}' in Z.

PA axiom:

Anm(Sn = Sm -> n=m)

Then just verify that this is a theorem of Z:

Anm((n in w & m in w & nu{n} = mu{m}) -> n=m).

Then go on down the line verifying each axiom in PA as translated into
Z.

The induction schema for PA will be a bit of paperwork, but nothing
conceptually too difficult.

Then the model for PA will be:

<w 0 S' +' *'>

where S', +' and *' are the set theoretic operations on w
corresponding to the operation sybmols for PA. (As, for example, I
mentioned nu{n} corresponds to Sn).

If you want to know more, then please just read up about the
construction of the system of naturals in Z and about models in
mathematical logic.

I need to not type all day telling you things you can read for
yourself.

> > If
> > you still can't see it, then, if I'm feeling generous, I'll outline it
> > for you. As to showing an exact sequence of primitive formulas of the
> > language of Z, no, that's just a chore.
>
> I don't know what you're referring to. I did ask for the statement of
> the theorem in ZFC, but nobody has come up with that either.
>
> So in summary,
>
> 1. ZFC can prove PA consistent - it's easy and lots of people have
> done it.
> 2. Nobody can give a reference to its being done.

It's done easily as an exercise, just as I gave you a start abovel.

> 3. Nobody can describe the proof that has been done in ZFC.

NO, I have DESCRIBED a proof.

> 4. Nobody can give even the ZFC expression for the theorem itself.

NO. If you paid me enough money, I'd do the labor of translating the
informal proof to a perfectly formal one.

> > > What is the proof and how is Regularity essential?
>
> > You're mixed up. Regularity is NOT needed. That's why I put Z-
> > regularity, which means "Z without the axiom of regularity".

Why don't you have the courtesy even to recognize that I've answered
and corrected you? Even if not a matter of courtesy, but at least of
communication so that I would know that you do recognize that a needed
correction has been made to your misunderstanding.

MoeBlee


From: MoeBlee on
On Jun 29, 11:49 am, Charlie-Boo <shymath...(a)gmail.com> wrote:

> Didn't you just ask for a reference yourself a minute ago?

So what? Aatu mentioned some material I'm not familiar with. I asked
where I could read more about it.

Meanwhile, you've been told that if you read a textbook in logic and
one in set theory (even just the relevant portions, actually) then
you'd see how to show that Z proves the consistency of PA as even just
an added easy exercise, whether such books even make a point of the
matter.

And today I also gave you a basic outline and started you off with one
of the "subsections" to complete.

You are just a time/energy suck. Men of better discipline than I are
lucky not to waste their time/energy on your juvenile silliness.

MoeBlee


From: MoeBlee on
On Jun 29, 4:05 pm, MoeBlee <jazzm...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:

> What do you mean "obviously"? There are very few set theorists to
> believe it the case.

Sorry, delete that. I cut your sentence off and unintentionally
misconstrued you.

MoeBlee

From: Transfer Principle on
On Jun 29, 9:30 am, Charlie-Boo <shymath...(a)gmail.com> wrote:
> On Jun 29, 12:13 pm, MoeBlee <jazzm...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
> > If you still can't see it, then, if I'm feeling generous, I'll outline it
> > for you. As to showing an exact sequence of primitive formulas of the
> > language of Z, no, that's just a chore.
> I don't know what you're referring to.  I did ask for the statement of
> the theorem in ZFC, but nobody has come up with that either.
> So in summary,
> 1. ZFC can prove PA consistent - it's easy and lots of people have
> done it.
> 2. Nobody can give a reference to its being done.
> 3. Nobody can describe the proof that has been done in ZFC.
> 4. Nobody can give even the ZFC expression for the theorem itself.
> In other words, business as usual.

I'm not skeptical (in the way that Charlie-Boo is skeptical) about
the provability of Con(PA) in either ZFC or PRA+epsilon_0. But I
am suspicious of the fact that the induction needs only to be
taken up to epsilon_0, which the the smallest ordinal not reachable
from omega via finitely many additions, multiplications, and
exponentiations, but can be reached via finitely many _tetrations_
since epsilon_0 = omega^^omega. This is why I so often mention
Ed Nelson and his proof attempt of ~Con(PA) involving tetration.
From: MoeBlee on
On Jun 29, 4:23 pm, Transfer Principle <lwal...(a)lausd.net> wrote:

> I'm not skeptical (in the way that Charlie-Boo is skeptical) about
> the provability of Con(PA) in either ZFC or PRA+epsilon_0. But I
> am suspicious of the fact that the induction needs only to be
> taken up to epsilon_0,

As to ZFC, you don't need such fancy stuff as epsilon_0. Just do the
routine proof that with the system of omega with 0, successor,
addition, and multiplication we get a model of all the PA axioms.

MoeBlee