From: MoeBlee on
On Jun 29, 11:45 pm, Chris Menzel <cmen...(a)remove-this.tamu.edu>
wrote:
> On Tue, 29 Jun 2010 08:02:06 -0700 (PDT), MoeBlee <jazzm...(a)hotmail.com> said:

> > On Jun 28, 11:18 pm, Chris Menzel <cmen...(a)remove-this.tamu.edu>
> > wrote:
> >> On Mon, 28 Jun 2010 15:46:25 -0700 (PDT), MoeBlee <jazzm...(a)hotmail.com>
> >> said:
>
> >> > One thing I don't know how to do is show the mutual-interpretability
> >> > of PA and Y=ZF-"ax inf"+"~ax inf"
>
> >> > One direction seems not too difficult: interpreting PA in Y.
>
> >> > But how do we interpret Y in PA? Specifically, how do we define 'e' in
> >> > PA and then prove, in PA, all the axioms of Y as interpreted in the
> >> > language of PA?
>
> >> The best known approach uses a mapping that Ackermann defined from the
> >> hereditarily finite sets into N that takes the empty set to 0 and,
> >> recursively, {s_1,...s_i} to 2^(n_1) + ... + 2^(n_i), where n_i codes
> >> s_i.  For numbers n and m, let nEm iff the quotient of m/2^n is odd.
> >> The relation E is obviously definable in PA.  Ackermann showed that, by
> >> defining the membership predicate as E, the axioms of Y are all theorems
> >> of PA.
>
> > Thanks. Would you recommend a book (or site) where I can read it in
> > all details?
>
> Hm, don't really know of any books.  There's a recent article by Kaye
> and Wang called "On Interpretations of Arithmetic and Set Theory" that
> occurred in 2007 or 2008 in the Notre Dame Journal of Formal Logic that
> discusses the mapping in detail.  

Great, thanks, I think that NDJFL is free online. I'll look.

Meanwhile, I found a little bit also in Kunen's 'Foundations Of
Mathematics'.

MoeBlee

From: MoeBlee on
On Jun 30, 2:44 am, "R. Srinivasan" <sradh...(a)in.ibm.com> wrote:

> The notion of provability in a theory is not formalizable in NAFL
> theories. It must remain as a metamathematical notion.

Meanwhile, metamathematical notions, including 'provability' are
formalizable in such theories as Z set theory. You understand that,
right?

MoeBlee
From: Frederick Williams on
MoeBlee wrote:

> Great, thanks, I think that NDJFL is free online. I'll look.

I don't think so, but you'll find it at Kaye's site.


--
I can't go on, I'll go on.
From: MoeBlee on
On Jun 30, 9:42 am, MoeBlee <jazzm...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:

> > Hmmm. I am not very conversant with classical model theory. So
> > according to you, there is a "standard model for the LANGUAGE of PA"
> > even if the theory PA is inconsistent.
>
> No just according to me.

Oopsie doopsie. I meant: NoT just according to me.

As I said, if Z is inconsistent, then Z proves every formula in the
language. So, if we find something to be a theorem of Z (such as the
existence and uniqueness theorems that provide for a definition of the
constant nicknamed "the standard model for the language of PA"), then
if Z is inconsistent, PERFORCE Z proves those theorems.

MoeBlee

From: Frederick Williams on
"R. Srinivasan" wrote:

> Hmmm. I am not very conversant with classical model theory. So
> according to you, there is a "standard model for the LANGUAGE of PA"
> even if the theory PA is inconsistent. May I infer that you have used
> infinite sets to define this model?

No sets, and a fortiori no infinite sets, are required (not for
first-order PA anyway): the individuals are

0, 1, 2, 3, ...;

the constant 0 is

0;

successor is

x |-> x + 1;

sum is

(x, y) |-> x + y;

and product is

(x, y) |-> x * y.

Mathematicians knew all about those before model theory was invented and
before Peano was an eye in his father's twinkle.

> How can you do that if the theory
> PA is inconsistent (which would make ZFC inconsistent as well)?

The above is a model of PA whether or not it and ZFC are consistent.

--
I can't go on, I'll go on.