Does inductive reasoning lead to knowledge?
in [Logic]
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From: Michael Gordge on 13 Dec 2009 02:29 On Dec 13, 1:01 pm, Immortalista <extro...(a)hotmail.com> wrote: > Does inductive reasoning lead to knowledge? Clue for the idiots, preceeding reasoning with an adjective does not change the meaning of reasoing. MG
From: Tim on 13 Dec 2009 06:08 On Dec 13, 2:29 am, Michael Gordge <mikegor...(a)xtra.co.nz> wrote: > On Dec 13, 1:01 pm, Immortalista <extro...(a)hotmail.com> wrote: > > > Does inductive reasoning lead to knowledge? > > Clue for the idiots, preceeding reasoning with an adjective does not > change the meaning of reasoing. > > MG So then deduction and induction are the same thing? Talk about idiocy!
From: Aatu Koskensilta on 13 Dec 2009 06:27 Michael Gordge <mikegordge(a)xtra.co.nz> writes: > On Dec 13, 1:01�pm, Immortalista <extro...(a)hotmail.com> wrote: > >> Does inductive reasoning lead to knowledge? > > Clue for the idiots, preceeding reasoning with an adjective does not > change the meaning of reasoing. Preceding Kant with an adjective also does nothing! But do we not find, in the official Objectivist doctrine and canon, no distinction between inductive and other kinds of reasoning? -- Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensilta(a)uta.fi) "Wovon man nicht sprechan kann, dar�ber muss man schweigen" - Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus
From: ZerkonXXXX on 13 Dec 2009 08:06 On Sat, 12 Dec 2009 18:01:56 -0800, Immortalista wrote: > What is the justification for either: Self evident... or ... If you have to ask... The base is reasoning. Here reason is being classified as one type or another. So what is the justification for these classifications which seems to force difference? Taking these outside their own world and placing them into the world of human utility in which they both might address a problem other than themselves (eg: "why was The Red-Headed League Dissolved?"), the answer becomes elementary.
From: Tim on 13 Dec 2009 08:12
On Dec 13, 6:27 am, Aatu Koskensilta <aatu.koskensi...(a)uta.fi> wrote: > Michael Gordge <mikegor...(a)xtra.co.nz> writes: > > On Dec 13, 1:01 pm, Immortalista <extro...(a)hotmail.com> wrote: > > >> Does inductive reasoning lead to knowledge? > > > Clue for the idiots, preceeding reasoning with an adjective does not > > change the meaning of reasoing. > > Preceding Kant with an adjective also does nothing! But do we not find, > in the official Objectivist doctrine and canon, no distinction between > inductive and other kinds of reasoning? > Surely what we find in the Objectivist dogma is a complete and utter lack of reasoning. > -- > Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensi...(a)uta.fi) > > "Wovon man nicht sprechan kann, darüber muss man schweigen" > - Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus |