From: Stan Brown on
Thu, 13 May 2010 20:38:05 +0000 (UTC) from Christian Weisgerber
<naddy(a)mips.inka.de>:
> Jerry Friedman <jerry_friedman(a)yahoo.com> wrote:
>
> > [quoted text muted]
> > > > "It's raining" into a few other languages.
> >
> > "It's raining" in Spanish is "Llueve" (literally "Rains") or "Esta
> > lloviendo" (literally "Is raining").
>
> In French, where personal-pronoun subjects are NOT optional, this
> is "il pleut", with a dummy subject, just like English "it rains"
> or German "es regnet".

And in French we have "il y a une maison", again with the dummy
subject "il". But the corresponding English is "there's a house".
What is the grammatical function of "there"?


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Stan Brown, Oak Road Systems, Tompkins County, New York, USA
http://OakRoadSystems.com
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From: Stan Brown on
Fri, 14 May 2010 04:00:21 +0200 from Pascal J. Bourguignon
<pjb(a)informatimago.com>:
> That is, ontologically, is it possible to have an action without a subject?

A good question. "Il pleut" and "it's raining" *look* like subject-
verb, but they're not really. More accurate would be "La pluie see
tombe"(*) or "Rain is occurring".

(*) I'm sure there's a better way to say that.

But I know very little of modern grammar.

--
Stan Brown, Oak Road Systems, Tompkins County, New York, USA
http://OakRoadSystems.com
Shikata ga nai...
From: Stan Brown on
Fri, 14 May 2010 09:23:47 -0700 (PDT) from Vend <vend82(a)virgilio.it>:
> But in the phrase "it is raining", which could be considered an
> abbreviation of "it is raining water", "water" is the object of the
> verb, not the subject. In fact, the phrase doesn't really have a
> subject, "it" is merely a syntatic placeholder.

I've always thought that, and a moment ago posted something to that
effect.

But maybe "it" really is a pronoun, whose antecedent is "the current
condition" or "the weather".

"What's the weather?" "It's raining."



--
Stan Brown, Oak Road Systems, Tompkins County, New York, USA
http://OakRoadSystems.com
Shikata ga nai...
From: Stan Brown on
Fri, 14 May 2010 11:18:41 -0400 from Bob Felts <wrf3
@stablecross.com>:

> There's actually a recent article which claims to show experimental
> support for the future influencing the past, but I can't find it at the
> moment. I'll ping the friend who originally sent it to me.

Won't you have to wait till he sends it? :-)



--
Stan Brown, Oak Road Systems, Tompkins County, New York, USA
http://OakRoadSystems.com
Shikata ga nai...
From: Stan Brown on
Fri, 14 May 2010 08:25:58 -0400 from Raffael Cavallaro
<raffaelcavallaro(a)pas.espam.s.il.vous.plait.mac.com>:
> On 2010-05-14 05:37:22 -0400, Pascal J. Bourguignon said:
>
> > Not an underlying language, but an underlying model, in the sense of
> > formal semantics.
>
> This part seems to be true - i.e., all human languages, as near as I've
> been able to determine, makes some sort of separation between what in
> english we would call nouns and verbs - there seems to be an underlying
> human cognitive model that there is a class of more temporally stable
> things (nouns) and a class of more temporally transient things (verbs).

It's a common statement that Hopi doesn't make such a distinction. I
don't know whether that's actually true, because it's also a
commonplace that Eskimo(*) has hundreds of words for "snow", and
that's false.

(*) Is there even an "Eskimo" language? I suspect the Inuit have
multiple regional languages.

--
Stan Brown, Oak Road Systems, Tompkins County, New York, USA
http://OakRoadSystems.com
Shikata ga nai...