From: MoeBlee on
On Jul 1, 11:07 am, Charlie-Boo <shymath...(a)gmail.com> wrote:
> On Jul 1, 11:53 am, MoeBlee <jazzm...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
>
> > On Jun 30, 11:17 pm, Charlie-Boo <shymath...(a)gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > > The problem isn't to conclude that a model exists, using ZFC.  The
> > > problem is to prove that PA is consistent, using ZFC.
>
> > I've gone over this already with you. ZFC proves that if a theory has
> > a model then the theory is consistent. It's an extremely simple
> > exercise I proposed you might think about and complete in about two
> > minutes.
>
> Then there's no reason for not giving it.  Bravado is no substitute
> for Mathematics.

The reason for giving it as an exercise is to get you STARTED
THINKING.

WHAT bravado?

Come on, really.

A theory is a set of sentences (all in a language) closed under
entailment. If a theory T is inconsistent, then there is a sentence P
such that both P and ~P are in T. But P is true in model M iff ~P is
false in model M, and no sentence is both true and false in a given
model M (by the definition-by-recursion function that maps sentences
to true or (exclusive or) to false per a model). So if a theory is
inconsistent, then the theory has no model (lest there be a sentence P
that is both true and false in the model, which is impossible).

Note: This does not preclude that there are models ('structures' if
you prefer) for the LANGUAGE of an inconsistent theory. For any
language, there are many models for that language. But if a theory is
inconsistent, then there is no model in which all of the sentences of
the theory are true.

Now, I PROMISE myself. No more explanation of this for you. If you
don't understand or have some question or objection about it. Then
just study the matter. I suggest Enderton's book for this particular
matter.

> Didn't you read my response?  Hinman doesn't refer to ZFC's axioms at
> all in his proof.  

The axioms are used in the various steps leading up to the proof.
That's how mathematics works. A proof of a theorem may rely on
previously proven theorems.

> He even admits that.

What specific quote do you have in mind?

He doesn't need ZFC. ZF is sufficient (less is sufficient too).

One disclaimer: I've given you the Hinman reference since you've asked
for a reference. I have not scrutinized his particular proof, since
this is something I proved myself long before I got Hinman's book.
Nevertheless, it is a reference as you asked for one, and you may
elect or not to read all the steps in the book that lead to his
exposition of why ZF proves PA is consistent.

MoeBlee
 
From: R. Srinivasan on
On Jul 1, 9:59 pm, Frederick Williams <frederick.willia...(a)tesco.net>
wrote:
> "R. Srinivasan" wrote:
>
> > I didn't ask how many natural numbers are exceeded by some specific,
> > fixed n.  
>
> You asked "how many natural numbers are exceeded by some element of N?"
>
True. In the sense that

An Em m > n

For each n, there is some m that exceeds it. So how many such n's are
there that are exceeded *within* N? Certainly more than finitely
many.
>
> But never mind...
>
> > I am asking you to count the number of natural numbers that
> > are not upper bounds for N. Since all natural numbers fit this
> > description, the answer has to be "infinitely many".
>
> Agreed.
>
> > The assertion
> > that infinitely many natural numbers have been exceeded within N ...
>
> There is nothing in N that exceeds infinitely many natural numbers.
>
True. But the assertion that "more than finitely many natural numbers
are not upper bounds for N" translates precisely to "Infinitely many
natural numbers are exceeded within N".

This is the intuition behind the existence of nonstandard natural
numbers, by the way.

RS

From: MoeBlee on
On Jul 1, 11:17 am, Charlie-Boo <shymath...(a)gmail.com> wrote:
> On Jul 1, 12:02 pm, MoeBlee <jazzm...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:

> > I've given you a reference.
>
> Yes, and as a Conservative you know the creed that to name a book is
> to defeat your enemy - especially if it is very hard to obtain.  (And
> to make sure, refuse to quote from it!)

WHAT are you talking about?

I'm not a conservative.

I didn't say I "defeated" you by naming a book. You asked for a
reference and I gave you one.

You asked for reference. I'm not a bookseller who knows what's hard or
easy to obtain. I just happened to notice that Hinman is at least one
book that provides a reference for this matter. And it seems you got
the book quickly enough anyway.

And whatever I said about quoting from it, it's understandable that
I'd rather let you read for yourself since (1) It's hard to quote in
ASCII all his speical symbols, plus give all the special definitions
of his notation. (2) The whole page itself is not comprehensible if
one has not read and understoof the steps leading up that page, some
of which go back perhaps hundreds of pages previous in the book. (3) I
didn't even say that I'm an expert in Hinman's own exposition. Indeed,
I only gave it as a reference if you wish to study for yourself.
Personally, I've studied mostly for other books, and from that study
am able to prove Z |- Con(PA) myself. (4) I don't have unlimited time
to tutor you in this subject. I gave you a reference; I didn't thereby
also promise to help you read it.

You seem to THRIVE on making these conversations as unproductive as
possible. I need to stop (I'm BEGGING myself to stop).

MoeBlee
From: MoeBlee on
On Jul 1, 12:11 pm, "R. Srinivasan" <sradh...(a)in.ibm.com> wrote:

> the assertion that "more than finitely many natural numbers
> are not upper bounds for N" translates precisely to "Infinitely many
> natural numbers are exceeded within N".

Okay.

> This is the intuition behind the existence of nonstandard natural
> numbers, by the way.

There are lots of routes to nonstandard models. I don't know how you
determined the above is "the intuition". (And that is not a request
that you post a bunch more of your claims about NAFL.)

One simple route to non-standard models is the compactness theorem.

MoeBlee

From: R. Srinivasan on
On Jul 1, 10:21 pm, MoeBlee <jazzm...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
> On Jul 1, 12:11 pm, "R. Srinivasan" <sradh...(a)in.ibm.com> wrote:
>
> >  the assertion that "more than finitely many natural numbers
> > are not upper bounds for N" translates precisely to "Infinitely many
> > natural numbers are exceeded within N".
>
> Okay.
>
> > This is the intuition behind the existence of nonstandard natural
> > numbers, by the way.
>
> There are lots of routes to nonstandard models. I don't know how you
> determined the above is "the intuition". (And that is not a request
> that you post a bunch more of your claims about NAFL.)
>
> One simple route to non-standard models is the compactness theorem.
>
Of course. The route I mentioned is via Edward Nelson's Principle of
Idealization in his Internal Set Theory.

RS