From: MoeBlee on
On Jul 1, 5:52 pm, herbzet <herb...(a)gmail.com> wrote:
> MoeBlee wrote:
>
> > CORRECTION below:
>
> > On Jul 1, 5:10 pm, MoeBlee <jazzm...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
>
> > > However, even though the definition I gave is okay, and provides these
> > > theorems,
>
> > > a theory T is inconsistent <-> T proves a contradiction
>
> > > a set of axioms X for a theory T is inconsistent <-> X proves a
> > > contradiction
>
> > Oops, delete that.
>
> Not sure if "that" is the previous sentence, or the previous 2 sentences.

Good point. Just the previous sentence.

> > > a theory T that is axiomatized by X is inconsistent <-> X proves a
> > > contradiction,
>
> > > I realize that in my own notes I actually do use a different
> > > definition, which, again, is equivalent for THEORIES but different for
> > > arbitrary sets of formulas:
>
> Missing the nuance here, unless you are distinguishing between
> a set Gamma of formulas *implying* both P and ~P, and a set Gamma
> of formulas *containing* both P and ~P.

Lets use 'derives' instead of 'implies' ('entails') so that we're
clearly purely syntactical.

But, yes, my first definition was not as good. Better to say that a
set of formulas G is inconsistent iff we can derive a contradiction
from G.


> > > a set of formulas G is consistent <-> there is no formula P such that
> > > P and ~P are provable from G
>
> OK, so far so good.
>
> > > a set of formulas G is inconsistent <-> G is not consistent
>
> Can't object to that.
>
> > and I think that is an easier and nicer definition to work with as it
> > gives all at once:
>
> > a set of formulas G is inconsistent <-> G proves a contradiction
>
> > a set of formulas G is inconsistent <-> G proves every formula (in the
> > language)
>
> No doubt missing some of the issues here, but:
>
> For classical logic the following sets are extensionally equivalent:
>
> 1) a set of formulas G that proves both P and ~P for some formula P.
> 2) a set of formulas G that proves a contradiction, i.e., some formula (P & ~P).
> 3) a set of formulas G that proves every formula (in the language).

Exactly. You're agreeing with me.

> For non-classical logics, these may diverge.

Of course.
>
> What (3) describes is called a trivial theory.  We don't necessarily
> care so much about inconsistency -- a paraconsistent logic will tolerate
> some inconsistency of type (1) or (2) in a theory T without T's necessarily
> becoming trivial.
>
> We don't worry so much about inconsistency per se -- we worry about
> triviality instead.

From a paraconsistent viewpoint that's true.

So whether we adopt:

consistent <-> derives a contradiction
or
consistent <-> there's a formula not derivable

would determine how the paraconsistent advocate would couch his views
as to consistency, as he would not mind a theory with contradictions
as long as the "explosive property" were absent so that contradictions
don't derive everything.

I think we are in accord, as far as I can tell.

MoeBlee

From: MoeBlee on
On Jul 2, 2:31 am, Chris Menzel <cmen...(a)remove-this.tamu.edu> wrote:

> Peter Smith's wonderfully lucid book _An Introduction to Gödel's
> Theorems_ highly recommended for this.

But make sure to get a newer printing, since he made a number of
important changes.

MoeBlee

From: Transfer Principle on
On Jun 30, 3:15 pm, "K_h" <KHol...(a)SX729.com> wrote:
> "R. Srinivasan" <sradh...(a)in.ibm.com> wrote in message
> > OK. Here I want ~Inf to be stated in the form that you
> > mentioned, that is, every set is hereditarily finite.
> Why do you think the axiom of infinity is false?  What is
> the basis for your belief in  ~Inf?  To me it is
> self-evident that all the naturals exist.

But there's a huge difference between "all the naturals"
exist and "a _set_ of all naturals exists." To see the
difference, try substituting "ordinals" for "naturals." I
bet that K_h believes that all the ordinals exist, but not
a _set_ of all ordinals (Burali-Forti).

Notice that Srinivasan's base theory is NBG, which
allows for proper classes. If all the naturals exist (as
sets), then there is a class of all naturals. But it might
be the case that this class is proper. Indeed, this
appears to be _precisely_ the case in Srinivasan's
own theory NBG-Infinity+D=0.

In this theory, the class of all naturals is precisely the
proper class of all ordinals. In short, omega=On.
From: Transfer Principle on
On Jun 30, 11:34 pm, Ki Song <kiwisqu...(a)gmail.com> wrote:
> Perhaps an analogy is in order!
> I feel like what Charlie-Boo is asking people to do is analogous to
> asking someone to perform the addition:
> Sqrt{2}+Sqrt{3}, with a decimal precision of 10^(10^(10^100)) place.

To me, there is one key difference. It appears that most posters,
including Charlie-Boo (though not _all_ sci.math posters, but I
digress), accept that in principle, given enough time and space,
one can find sqrt(2)+sqrt(3) to that precision. After all, this is
what is meant by computable -- there exists a Turing machine
such that given any natural number, even 10^10^10^100 (often
called a "googolplexplex," or a "googolduplex") as input, the
machine prints that many digits of the computable number
sqrt(2)+sqrt(3) and halts.

But it's _not_ equally evident to Charlie-Boo that ZFC can prove
the consistency of PA. I myself accept the proof of Con(PA)
(though I still believe that the presence of epsilon_0 in any
proof of Con(PA) is suspicious, I don't deny that the such a
proof exists), but Charlie-Boo doesn't.

What Charlie-Boo needs, therefore, is some evidence that
convinces him that if one were to work out all the steps, one
can eventually prove Con(PA) in ZFC, just as one can eventually
find googolduplex digits of sqrt(2)+sqrt(3). So far, no poster or
book has so convinced him. Therefore, there is no reason for
him to believe that such a proof exists.
From: Transfer Principle on
On Jul 1, 9:25 am, MoeBlee <jazzm...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
> On Jul 1, 9:01 am, Nam Nguyen <namducngu...(a)shaw.ca> wrote:
> > or if he meant that was just a relative consistency
> > proof he had referred to.
> Anyway, Aatu is not saying just that there exists a relative
> consistency proof nor just that, say, ZF or some other formal system
> proves Con(PA), but rather he's saying that PA IS consistent. He's
> saying that aside from whatever FORMAL proofs, PA is consistent -
> PERIOD. His basis is for that is not a FORMAL proof, but rather his
> conviction that the axioms of PA are true (and not even in confined to
> a FORMAL model theoretic sense of truth, but rather that the axioms
> are simply true about the natural numbers, as we (editorial 'we')
> understand the natural numbers even aside from any formalization.

But this raises an interesting point here.

If Aatu can say that PA is consistent, _period_, without any formal
proof whatsoever, then why can't Nguyen believe that PA is
inconsistent,
_period_, without formal proof? For that matter, why can't Herc
believe
that there exist only countably many reals, _period_, without formal
proof, or Srinivasan believe that Infinity is false, _period_, without
formal
proof, or WM believe that certain large naturals don't exist,
_period_,
without formal proof?

In reality, the only statements that posters are allowed to make,
_period_, without formal proof, are those which ZFC proves, or at
least
are undecidable in ZFC. Any statement outright refuted by ZFC isn't
allowed to be made, _period_, without formal proof. On the contrary, a
formal proof will be demanded at best, with the poster who made the
claim being asked to provide axioms, definitions, and so on. And at
worst, the poster will be called a five-letter insult.

So Nguyen is on the right track here. Aatu can state that PA is
consistent because there's a theory T proves such -- even if Aatu
states it without any such formal proof -- and that theory is ZFC. But
no one is allowed to make a claim of anything refuted by ZFC without
a formal proof in some (other) theory. This is a fact, no matter how
much MoeBlee or anyone else may try to deny it.