From: Aatu Koskensilta on
herbzet <herbzet(a)gmail.com> writes:

> However, this is a misleading use of the term "implication", as you
> have agreed that a formal proof in T of 'A -> B' does not mean that A
> implies B.

By "implication" I meant just a statement of the form A --> B. This is,
I believe, relatively standard usage in logic.

--
Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensilta(a)uta.fi)

"Wovon man nicht sprechen kann, dar�ber muss man schweigen"
- Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus
From: herbzet on


Aatu Koskensilta wrote:
>
> herbzet <herbzet(a)gmail.com> writes:
>
> > That we need to clarify what it means to assert that a true
> > statement can imply a false statement in a consistent system.
>
> What's there to clarify? The observation that a consistent system can
> prove false implications is on the face of it completely transparent.

But the proof-in-T is not itself a false implication under any interpretation,
though its conclusion may be false under this or that interpretation.

Look at the title of the thread: Is there an interpretation of a
consistent theory T such that from its true axioms (if any exist)
one can derive false theorems?

I'd like to see it.

--
hz
From: Aatu Koskensilta on
herbzet <herbzet(a)gmail.com> writes:

> Look at the title of the thread: Is there an interpretation of a
> consistent theory T such that from its true axioms (if any exist) one
> can derive false theorems?

That's not the title of this thread. You're of course right that a true
sentence never implies a false one. That notwithstanding, when in logic
we talk about a sentence A implying another sentence B in a theory or
system we usually have in mind the provability of the implication A -->
B in the theory or system.

--
Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensilta(a)uta.fi)

"Wovon man nicht sprechen kann, dar�ber muss man schweigen"
- Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus
From: herbzet on


Aatu Koskensilta wrote:
> herbzet <herbzet(a)gmail.com> writes:
>
> > However, this is a misleading use of the term "implication", as you
> > have agreed that a formal proof in T of 'A -> B' does not mean that A
> > implies B.
>
> By "implication" I meant just a statement of the form A --> B. This is,
> I believe, relatively standard usage in logic.

The question of when A -> B means that A implies B is quite non-trivial.

What is standard usage in logic is in this respect problematical, and
the problem is in the equivocal use of the term "implies".

Sure, in a consistent system, we can prove false theorems, but
there will have to be false axioms used -- just using true axioms
will not suffice.

A counter-example would end this argument quickly.

--
hz
From: Aatu Koskensilta on
herbzet <herbzet(a)gmail.com> writes:

> Sure, in a consistent system, we can prove false theorems, but there
> will have to be false axioms used -- just using true axioms will not
> suffice.

No one's claimed otherwise.

--
Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensilta(a)uta.fi)

"Wovon man nicht sprechen kann, dar�ber muss man schweigen"
- Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus