From: Transfer Principle on
On Mar 10, 4:48 am, "Ostap S. B. M. Bender Jr."
<ostap_bender_1...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
> On Mar 9, 9:08 pm, Transfer Principle <lwal...(a)lausd.net> wrote:
> > which is a point in favor of the standard theorists.
> I am not sure what you mean by "standard theorists" in this context.
> Are "standard theorists" - people who are familiar with  Dirichlet
> Theorem and Chebotarev's Theorem?
> Then who are "non-standard theorists"  in this context? People, who
> are NOT familiar with Dirichlet Theorem and Chebotarev's Theorem?

An interesting interpretion of my term "standard theorists."

> Then isn't your term "non-standard theorists" just a synonym to
> "ignoramuses"?

I prefer to think of "non-standard theorists" as those who don't
automatically accept ZFC or PA as the dominant theory. I prefer to
think that one can accept alternate theories and new ideas without
being "ignoramuses."

> Then why do you say that it is one point " in favor of the standard
> theorists"? Wouldn't competent people have MORE THAN ONE point over
> ignoramuses?
> In fact, why are we still discussing this open-and-shut case and
> keeping score? Clearly, as always, the score is:
> Knowledge: infinity
> Ignorance: 0

An interesting interpretation. Then the only way to "score" would be
to learn more knowledge. And I definitely did. I learned more about
Dirichlet and Chebotarev and what they say about primes' distribution.

> > On the other hand, suppose Wiles had proved that FLT is actually
> > _undecidable_ in ZFC.
> Sorry, but that's an impossibility. As long as ZFC is not self-
> contradictory, hypotheses like FLT can NOT be proven undecidable.
> Don't you see that?

The two posters with the last name Hughes (Jesse and William) can
explain this much better than I can. Refer to their posts earlier
in this thread (at least concerning Goldbach's conjecture -- FLT is
of course a moot point since Wiles did prove FLT).
From: master1729 on
ostap bender 1900 wrote :
>
> Most so-called "mathematicians" have not discovered a
> single new axiom
> in their entire miserable lives. So, you are ahead of
> everybody.
>
> But don't stop at one. Go for at least 157 new
> axioms.
>

are you advising james to become a set theorist ?
From: master1729 on
lwalke wrote :

> On Mar 8, 5:12 am, "Ostap S. B. M. Bender Jr."
> <ostap_bender_1...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
> > On Mar 7, 7:50 am, JSH <jst...(a)gmail.com> wrote:
> > > Reality of course is that I first wondered if
> > > primes might have no preference with each other
> > Wait. Didn't you earlier discover that primes
> prefer composites?
>
> I usually don't bother to post in JSH threads, but
> there's
> something I'd like to point out here:
>
> > you derive that some primes "might have preference
> with each other".
>
> In another JSH thread last month, a standard theorist
> found a way
> to express (not _prove_, of course, but just express)
> JSH's claim
> using more rigorous mathematical terminology. Instead
> of referring
> to "preferences," the standard theorist mentioned the
> notion of
> asymptotic density, as follows.
>
> Let P(k) denote the kth prime. That is to say, P(k)
> is defined
> recursively as:
>
> P(1) = 2
> P(k+1) = min({peN | p>P(k) & p prime})
>
> Then JSH's claim can be stated as follows: if m and n
> are coprime,
> then the set
>
> {keN | (P(k) == n) mod m}
>
> has asymptotic density 1/phi(m) (phi is Euler's
> totient).
>
> One standard theorist claimed that the result is true
> and follows
> from Dirichlet's theorem, but Dirichlet's theorem
> only shows that
> these sets are _infinite_, not what their density is.
>
> Another standard theorist claimed that the result is
> false, and
> used quadratic residues in his argument. Indeed, he
> pointed out
> that if r is a quadratic residue mod m, and n is a
> quadratic
> nonresidue mod m, then for many natural numbers M,
>
> card({keN | k<M & (P(k) == n) mod m}) > card({keN |
> k<M & (P(k) == r)
> mod m})
>
> One can see why this may be the case -- since r is a
> quadratic
> residue mod m, by definition, the set on the right
> contains
> squares, and by definition squares are not primes.
> However, the
> poster failed to mention whether this affects the
> asymptotic
> density at all, so that:
>
> density({keN | (P(k) == n) mod m}) > 1/phi(m), n a
> nonresidue mod m
> density({keN | (P(k) == r) mod m}) < 1/phi(m), r a
> residue mod m
>
> > > The best never stop at one.
> > Andrew Wiles has zero. Unlike you, he can prove
> theorems, so he has no
> > need to "discover" axioms.
>
> Until a standard theorist gives a proof, or at least
> a reference
> to a proof, of either JSH's claim or its negation,
> the possibility
> remains that his claim is undecidable in ZFC. In that
> case, JSH
> would be justified in calling his claim an "axiom."
> Indeed, since
> Euclid's Fifth Postulate and AC have been shown to be
> undecidable
> in neutral geometry and ZF, respectively, one can add
> either these
> or their negations as _axioms_ and produce a new
> theory.
>
> > > There are no one-hit wonders in major
> mathematical discovery.
> > Most so-called "mathematicians" have not discovered
> a single new axiom
> > in their entire miserable lives.
>
> "Discovering" axioms isn't meaningful, but
> discovering nontrivial
> statements that are undecidable in ZFC is --
> especially if one can
> derive interesting results from them.
>
> Consider Riemann's Hypothesis. So far neither RH nor
> its negation
> have been proved in ZFC, and the possibility remains
> that RH might
> be undecidable in ZFC. But there are some results in
> number theory
> that require RH. Therefore, if RH is shown to be
> undecidable in ZFC,
> some number theorists might prefer to work in ZFC+RH
> and not ZFC.
>
> It's conceivable that JSH's claim might also lead to
> interesting
> results in number theory. Although I don't really
> believe that JSH
> has a proof of the Twin Primes Conjecture, if someday
> in the future
> someone proves the Twin Primes Conjecture, but the
> proof requires
> JSH's claim, and that claim has been proved
> undecidable in ZFC,
> then number theorists might choose to work in ZFC+JSH
> rather than
> ZFC, thus vindicating JSH's axiom once and for all.

we know that prime factorization is not random , it can produce primes with preferences.

a good example is given by my 911 polynomial.

in the 911 polynomial take a positive random x , and notice all prime factors are 1 mod 10.

quadratic residues are also a good example of non-random factorization.

so an axiom ? rather a conjecture with hope for proof or disproof.

however all such ideas are polynomial ideas and thus we might conjecture , not an axiom , the following :

p mod q is random for p a non-quadratic residue mod q and q a non-quadratic residue mod p.

notice that a sqrt deviation does not imply non-random , see e.g. random walk.

so james idea is not ' rescued ' because it was not in ' danger '.

btw i doubt the correctness of the proof you mention.

the paper does not seem convincing , quadratic residues seem ignored and the result proven seems too strong ( close to GRH ).

i know i did not define random formally , but then again did anyone ever ? ;)

have you looked at my website btw ?

regards

tommy1729
From: master1729 on
> On Mar 9, 12:43 am, "Ostap S. B. M. Bender Jr."
> <ostap_bender_1...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
> > On Mar 9, 12:30 am, "Ostap S. B. M. Bender Jr."
> > > >  if someday in the future
> > > > someone proves the Twin Primes Conjecture, but
> the proof requires
> > > > JSH's claim, and that claim has been proved
> undecidable in ZFC,
> > > > then number theorists might choose to work in
> ZFC+JSH rather than
> > > > ZFC, thus vindicating JSH's axiom once and for
> all.
> > I am too lazy to check, but wouldn't the proof
>  (using only ZFC) that
> > JSH doesn't contradict ZFC, be actually a proof
> that JSH is true in
> > ZFC?
>
> It could be the case that _neither_ JSH _nor_ its
> negation contradicts
> ZFC, so that JSH would be _undecidable_ in ZFC.
>
> Actually, since Magadin established that JSH isn't
> really an "axiom"
> at all, let's use Riemann's hypothesis intead. In
> other words, it
> could be the case that _neither_ RH _nor_ its
> negation contradicts
> ZFC, so that RH would be _undecidable_ in ZFC.
> Obviously, ZFC doesn't
> prove both RH _and_ its negation (unless ZFC is
> inconsistent).
>
> There have been a few threads here at sci.math which
> discuss the
> possibility that RH is undecidable in ZFC, or that
> Goldbach's
> Conjecture is undecidable in ZFC or PA. Some standard
> theorists
> wonder, if RH or GC is undecidable in ZFC, does this
> mean that RH or
> GC are "true"?

no.